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Old 02-06-2008, 01:12 AM   #61
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Therefore God's inspired word cannot be trusted? How are we meant to understand the true meaning of the Word if it has been corrupted by human failings? Does the Jephthah story actually mean something entirely different to what we see before us?
Now you are doing to my words what others do to the bible to prove unrelated points and that is taking them out of context...I was talking on the writers use of the word heart in relation to God's emotions it was not in relation to japhthah at all.
And I was just speaking generally. It appears to be rather difficult to determine God's word if there is a discrepancy between the Inspiration, the intended meaning, and the actual text. That's all I meant.
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Old 02-06-2008, 01:19 AM   #62
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What appears to be "the Jephthah story" is just not the "whole story".
What is so briefly related needs to be compared with, and be evaluated in the light of other information that is provided in previous books.
But just consider, even if the common interpretation is correct, and Jephthah did intend to carry out burning his daughter on an altar, being an Israelite he would have been taught in The Law, and his detailed knowledge of Israel's history employed in his arguments indicates that he would be well aware of The Law of Moses, and its requirements.
If he intended to offer up his daughter as a "burnt offering", he would have needed to deliver her over to the Levites that they might perform the duties of the altar as it was appointed to them. (Things had changed since the time of Abraham and Issac) They of course, holding the position of being the final authorities on the interpretation and on the application of The Law, could (and would) forestall such a flagarant abuse against The Commandments.
But aren't there other examples in the bible of human sacrifice carried out by the Israelites, even by Moses himself?
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Old 02-06-2008, 02:50 AM   #63
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I must admit that this topic area has always intrigue me. Why would otherwise intelligent people feel compelled to read human sacrifice into the OT when it is so evidentally missing?
It's not missing -- it's just ignored by most "believers" and biblical apologists.

Just what do you think happened to all those enemies of Israel who were "devoted to the LORD"?

To give one example of the many:

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Joshua 6:21: They devoted the city to the LORD and destroyed with the sword every living thing in it—men and women, young and old, cattle, sheep and donkeys. (ESV)
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Old 02-06-2008, 02:52 AM   #64
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What appears to be "the Jephthah story" is just not the "whole story".
What is so briefly related needs to be compared with, and be evaluated in the light of other information that is provided in previous books.
But just consider, even if the common interpretation is correct, and Jephthah did intend to carry out burning his daughter on an altar, being an Israelite he would have been taught in The Law, and his detailed knowledge of Israel's history employed in his arguments indicates that he would be well aware of The Law of Moses, and its requirements.
If he intended to offer up his daughter as a "burnt offering", he would have needed to deliver her over to the Levites that they might perform the duties of the altar as it was appointed to them. (Things had changed since the time of Abraham and Issac) They of course, holding the position of being the final authorities on the interpretation and on the application of The Law, could (and would) forestall such a flagarant abuse against The Commandments.
You are assuming a lot of things here that contradict the story itself.
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Old 02-06-2008, 05:11 AM   #65
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I must admit that this topic area has always intrigue me. Why would otherwise intelligent people feel compelled to read human sacrifice into the OT when it is so evidentally missing?...

...You might argue that some prisoners were sacrificed by the Israelite army, but this can also be interpreted as punishment.
In Numbers 31, the Israelites ended up with 32,000 Midianite virgins. They sacrificed one-thousandth of all their spoils, including 32 virgins. Are you seriously suggesting that, just by coincidence, exactly 32 Midianite virgins perpetrated crimes that required capital punishment at this time?

Why would otherwise intelligent people feel compelled to ignore human sacrifice in the OT when it is so evidently present?
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Old 02-06-2008, 05:17 AM   #66
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What appears to be "the Jephthah story" is just not the "whole story".
What is so briefly related needs to be compared with, and be evaluated in the light of other information that is provided in previous books.
But just consider, even if the common interpretation is correct, and Jephthah did intend to carry out burning his daughter on an altar, being an Israelite he would have been taught in The Law, and his detailed knowledge of Israel's history employed in his arguments indicates that he would be well aware of The Law of Moses, and its requirements.
If he intended to offer up his daughter as a "burnt offering", he would have needed to deliver her over to the Levites that they might perform the duties of the altar as it was appointed to them. (Things had changed since the time of Abraham and Issac) They of course, holding the position of being the final authorities on the interpretation and on the application of The Law, could (and would) forestall such a flagarant abuse against The Commandments.
Yes, it is entirely reasonable to suppose that he would have given her to the priests (who were familiar with human sacrifice). Would this have been a "flagrant abuse against the Commandments"? Not necessarily, as "thou shalt not murder" prohibits only unlawful killing. But you may be reading too much into the story: it IS only a story (a parable about making rash promises), and the writer might not have considered that detail.
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Old 02-06-2008, 05:32 AM   #67
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And that Isaac incident. If this were know to be "against god", then why would Abraham say "Okie Dokie, sounds like a plan....", instead of a least thinking that this must be some demonic vision, and not god's word, or some such? Or did God like and request burnt human sacrifices first, and then later decided he didn't like them anymore after the time of moses?
How would Abraham have known? The law of Moses had not given yet.

Clearly, he was in a learning mode; apparently he would know God's voice if the many interactions in the Genesis account actually occurred. Furthermore, if you read Genesis 22 and Hebrews 11, you will see that the text suggests that he was trusting in God to do what is right. He probably thought many thoughts; in both of these cases, given Abraham's thoughts on the final outcome, he seemed to be thinking that Isaac would survive somehow.

The outcome of the "incident" does not appear to support the apparent assumption that you make in you ending question.

Thanks,
TTS - thanks for responding, it's clear that the main point was Abraham doing what he's told, the text never says nor implies that Abraham thought that Isaac would survive - this is yet another example of a Christian adding what they want to add to the Bible to make it more in line with their thoughts. That happens so much, and it shows that even most Christians already know, deep down, that the bible is not the word of God.

The prevalence of the God of the OT asking for and enjoying human sacrifice early on (and then being changed into a god that doesn't want human sacrifice, then in the NT being changed back again to a God that likes human sacrifice) has been made clear in many of the subsequent posts (thanks all for those, jack, and others).

have a good day-

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Old 02-06-2008, 05:38 AM   #68
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you do realize the heart is a muscle that pumps blood and all emotions are in the brain? Or maybe not after all bronze age sheep herders were so much more wise than we are today. The very words in these two sentences show the total lack of understanding of the world besides why would a being that is incorporeal need a muscle to pump blood? Of course it could come into his heart unless he is alive and part of the natural world. So which is it sugar is he a metaphysical super being who lives in an alternate plain of existence or is he a part of the natural world and susceptible to time and the laws of nature?:wave:

lol I only have one word for this arguement ...STRAWMAN...God doesn't have a heart so is wrong to use that word emotionally? this is reaching even for an atheist. And just to point out we believe the Bible is INSPIRED of God but still written by men in their words.
It is not a strawman as you may want to dismiss it as since it shows the total lack of understanding of the basic simple processes we are aware of today. How can you trust the judgment of a people who describe emotion coming from the organ that pumps blood? Anytime i can i try to point out how silly it is to follow the words of nomadic sheep herders. Did you even see my second sentence? This is laughable that people today attribute wisdom to people who thought emotion originated from the HEART. You probably subscribe to the thought that a bat is a bird as well? Or is that another strawman you need to hold onto a belief that nomadic sheep herders know more about the world then you do? Besides being a Christian means you accept and believe in Human sacrifice and thats a "good' thing. I can accept the whole ya godidit straight forward but trying to weasel out of it...well smacks with irony for me. Of course Xtians believe and accept that J was Right in killing his daughter why wouldn't they be since killing your kin seams to be a constant theme Xtians follow.
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Old 02-06-2008, 09:08 AM   #69
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What appears to be "the Jephthah story" is just not the "whole story".
What is so briefly related needs to be compared with, and be evaluated in the light of other information that is provided in previous books.
But just consider, even if the common interpretation is correct, and Jephthah did intend to carry out burning his daughter on an altar, being an Israelite he would have been taught in The Law, and his detailed knowledge of Israel's history employed in his arguments indicates that he would be well aware of The Law of Moses, and its requirements.
If he intended to offer up his daughter as a "burnt offering", he would have needed to deliver her over to the Levites that they might perform the duties of the altar as it was appointed to them. (Things had changed since the time of Abraham and Issac) They of course, holding the position of being the final authorities on the interpretation and on the application of The Law, could (and would) forestall such a flagrant abuse against The Commandments.
But aren't there other examples in the bible of human sacrifice carried out by the Israelites, even by Moses himself?
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You are assuming a lot of things here that contradict the story itself.
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Yes, it is entirely reasonable to suppose that he would have given her to the priests (who were familiar with human sacrifice). Would this have been a "flagrant abuse against the Commandments"? Not necessarily, as "thou shalt not murder" prohibits only unlawful killing.
But you may be reading too much into the story: it IS only a story (a parable about making rash promises), and the writer might not have considered that detail.
First let me remind you, that in the narrative Jephthah is unmistakably presented as being an Israelite who is faithful to Yahweh (Jdg. 11:11, 11:29-31, 11:35)
We are told that "the Spirit of Yahweh came upon Jephthah" (11:29) while we are not told exactly -within this narrative-, what this "Spirit of Yahweh" consisted of, yet at the very least it would indicate receiving a heightened sense of consciousness, and a degree of direct divine guidance.
Yet even before this "Spirit of Yahweh came upon Jephthah", he displays a strong knowledge of Israel's history and of all of the circumstances that gave Israel a valid and rightful claim to the land. (11:12-27)
It is a far greater assumption, to evaluate the story under a biased assumption that Jephthah was ignorant of The Law of Moses, and of the express prohibitions and warning against human sacrifice, than it is to accept that he was well aware of these prohibitions and warnings;

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And you shall not let any of your seed pass through [the fire] to Molech, neither shall you profane the name of your Elohim: I am Yahweh. (Lev. 18:21)

and;

29. When Yahweh your Elohim shall cut off the nations from before you, when you go in to possess them, and you succeed them, and dwell in their land;
(the exact situation that Jephthah is addressing in Judges 27)
30. Take heed to yourself that you be not snared by following them, after that they be destroyed from before you; and that you do enquire not after their elohim, saying, How did these nations serve their elohim? even so will I do likewise.
31. You SHALL NOT DO SO unto Yahweh your Elohim: for every abomination to Yahweh, which he hates, have they done unto their elohim; for even their sons and their daughters they have burnt in the fire to their elohim.
32. What thing soever I command you, observe to do it: You shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it. (Deut. 12:29-32)
In regard to Jephthah invoking a vow, this would not have only been a private matter, but if he was, as the text indicates a devotee of Yahweh the Elohim of Israel, then the making of such a vow valid and binding would require him adhering to certain specific procedures given by Yahweh to be followed in such occasions, requiring the payment of a monetary fee to the Levitical Priesthood.(Lev 27:1-33)
A careful reading will show that the word "DEVOTED" (Heb. "cherem") does NOT always mean "to burn or to be destroyed by fire"
A plot of land could be by, or through a vow, become "DEVOTED" to Yahweh, and become His permanent possesion, with NO provision for, nor any possibility of redemption by the owner.
Thus a vow "DEVOTING" anything, was the highest form of vow, one that once confirmed with the payment of the required fee to the Levites, there could be no going back from, and no possibility of repurchasing.

So Jephthah kept his word and performed his vow, "devoted" his only child to Yahweh his Elohim, for Yahweh to do with her whatsoever he would. By the narrative we are made to understand that at the very minimum it was understood by all parties that she would remain a virgin, never have children, and be permanently removed and barred from all further contact with her family.
There is a reasonable alternate interpretation of the Hebrew wording ending Judges 27, that gives a somewhat happier conclusion;

"And it came to pass at the end of two months, that she returned unto her father, who did with her [according] to his vow which he had vowed: and she knew no man. And it was a custom in Israel, That the daughters of Israel went yearly to update the daughter of Jephthah the Gileadite, for four days each year."
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Old 02-06-2008, 09:20 AM   #70
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It is a far greater assumption, to evaluate the story under a biased assumption that Jephthah was ignorant of The Law of Moses, and of the express prohibitions and warning against human sacrifice, than it is to accept that he was well aware of these prohibitions and warnings;
You are still assuming that human sacrifice WAS against the law. But the only verses you cite for this are the prohibitions against Caananite-style infant sacrifice of all firstborn children (generally to other gods, like Molech). And the obvious mass human-sacrifice in Numbers 31 remains as a counterexample.

But, if the story is read as a cautionary tale against rash oaths, these details still don't matter. In effect, the author is saying "even the holiest of men should be careful what they wish for".
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