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Old 02-06-2005, 09:01 PM   #111
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Originally Posted by aChristian
I was saying the gospels were written soon after the resurrection.
There doesn't appear to be any reliable evidence to support that belief so I'm not inclined to accept it.

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I agree that the apostles didn't preach until 50 days after the resurrection.
Then you must also agree that it is senseless to suggest that anyone could have offered an identifiable body to dispute such claims.

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In an article I read, at a conference, the author was surprised at how many scholars were leaning favorably toward the theory that the manuscript was a fragment of Mark. It has been dated at 45 AD, I think on paleographic grounds.
If you would be more specific in identifying the fragment, it shouldn't be too difficult to disabuse you of your misconception. This dating wouldn't come from Theide, by any chance? His efforts have been pretty soundly debunked and the consensus estimate of Mark's authorship continues to be c.70CE.

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I am unaware of any that had knowledge of the events that could present a reasonable arguement against the resurrection, or the miracles the disciples were performing for that matter.
Since no such "knowledge" could exist, this is meaningless. According to your own Bible, the claims weren't publicly made until over a month after the fact. Miraculous healings and other amazing demonstrations appear to have been, if not common, not exactly atypical of the times.

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I don't think you really believe this.
I don't just believe that eyewitness testimony is unreliable, I know it for a fact. Repeated studies have established it but even a brief check of recent news will provide several examples of death row convicts who have been freed subsequent to DNA evidence despite the fact that eyewitness tesimony helped get them convicted. I even have personal experience. A former girlfriend and I witnessed a crime but her description of the offender differed significantly from my own. I know too much about psychology to trust eyewitness testimony.

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Only one writer deemed it necessary to include it. So what?
So your credulity seems unreasonable since the presence of guards would clearly be important to any attempt to tell the story.

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You may not think the Romans would take it seriously enough, but they were obviously concerned with Jewish uprisings...
What does concern about Jewish uprisings have to do with concern about a corpse rising from the dead?

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...and besides, Matthew was around at the time it happened and so I think his report is more credible than your guess at what was in the minds of the Romans.
Since there is no good reason to think this version of the story was written by an actual disciple, this protest lacks credibility.

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Why were the Jews claiming the body was stolen?
Assuming they did, I can only conclude they did so in response to the story and, since it doesn't appear to have existed until the last two decades of the 1st century, you can't blame them for the effort.

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Why didn't they go get the body if it was there.
First, the claim wasn't made for half a decade. Second, how would they know where to look? Third, even it was made when the disciples started preaching and they knew where to look, a body over a month old isn't going to convince anyone of anything.

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If the disciples stole it, why did they undergo persecution and often death for a lie that they knew was a lie?
Personally, assuming there was a body, I don't think the disciples stole it. Within the context of that assumption, I tend to agree with Crossan that the location of the body was not known to anyone because it was thrown in a common grave along with all the other crucifixion victims.

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Why are there no credible alternative accounts by the non-Christians who were alive at the time.
Because nobody took the claims of gullible, superstitious fools seriously enough to bother. Keep in mind that the only claims we have evidence for, prior to the publication of the Gospel stories, is "Christ crucified and risen".

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The Bible indicates that both the Jewish authorities and the bribed Roman authorities knew right away.
If you can specifically identify the passage, you would appear to have located a contradiction in your Bible though the bribe story is pretty obviously fabricated so that isn't going to work either way.

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Are you saying that the Romans and Jews could not have located the tomb?
No, I'm saying that, even if they had, any body within would have been unidentifiable so your assertion to the contrary is not credible.

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The point is the Christians were persecuted as Jesus had forewarned them.
No, that isn't the point at all. The point is your assertion that the early Christians were persecuted because they wouldn't deny the Gospel story is without merit.

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However, they didn't deny him because they knew he was God because they had been with him after the crucifixion and resurrection and more than 500 of them saw him ascend into heaven.
This clearly could not be true of every persecuted Christian so your assertion is specious. They didn't deny their beliefs because they honestly believed them. No other conclusions may be made from that fact.

Also, you didn't answer several of my earlier questions:

Why would God have to give eyewitnesses any information?

So all the Christian scholars who disagree with the conservative Christian scholars, with regard to whether the Gospels were written by eyewitnesses, are deliberately lying?

What, specifically, convinces you that the conservative Christian scholars are being more honest with the evidence when it comes to identifying the Gospel authors as eyewitnesses?

Why would these other Christian scholars "desperately want" people to not believe the Gospels were written by eyewitnesses?

Do you have specific evidence that Meier, for example, denies the need for repentance because the Gospels were not written by eyewitnesses?
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Old 02-07-2005, 12:02 AM   #112
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Originally Posted by aChristian

It is clear from the terms in the rest of the letter and the gospel of John that he is talking about Jesus
The statement in question does not say what is alleged. You initially stated that it was clear in 1 John 1-4.

You see, it is so simple for the author to state he is an eyewitness to Jesus. But he does not.

You have not supplied this additional evidence, and contrary evidence is supplied below:



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1: That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;

He is obviously talking about someone physical whom he could handle with his hands.
no, it's metaphorical gibberish. Subject: Word of Life. Plain as day.

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2: For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;
They had seen it and were bearing witness (telling them about what they had seen) to the life that had appeared and were showing (obviously not in a physical sense, but the person of Jesus who really is living in Christians) them Jesus who was (previously physically) with the Father and was manifested (physically) to us.
BZZZT. Can't change meaning in the middle of a passage. To "Shew" what they have "seen" requires its physical presence if it is a physical thing. otherwise the language would be "tell you about" what we have seen.



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3: That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ.
4: And these things write we unto you, that your joy may be full.

That which we have seen and heard (Jesus’ miraculous life on earth and his death, resurrection, and ascension as well as his message) we declare to you, so you can have fellowship with us (by knowing the same living God who is now in heaven but can live in your heart)

Uh - where's the part in there about seeing his life and resurrection? That is you reading into the text.

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I think this is a clear interpretation of the passage. Your rule that you can’t switch between physical and spiritual is not a rule of grammar or good interpretation. There is nothing preventing an author from doing this and the passage is quite understandable to me.
It's just wishful thinking. One should not have to "interpret". What is the point of writing, if it is some mysterious code that must be "interpreted"?

I'm afraid we disagree completely about the use of words. That they should have the same meaning in adjacent sentences is pretty obvious.


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He appears to me to give the reader reasons for believing that he knows what he is talking about when he tells him about Jesus and then to follow that up with how the reader can know this Jesus who John had lived with, seen die, rise from the dead, and ascend into heaven.

I realize that is what you wish. But it does not actually say that he lived with him. Ate with him. Etc. Does not say he had so much as one conversation with him.

It is metaphorical. So easy to see.


I know you have a lot on your plate. Thank you for addressing this. We do not have to agree. I just want the best evidence you have put out for consideration.

- cheers.
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Old 02-07-2005, 10:24 AM   #113
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Originally Posted by aChristian
Matthew is known from church history to be the author of Matthew. He is listed as one of the 12 apostles and Mark 2:13,14 tell of his call to be a follower of Jesus.
Mark was Barnabus' cousin and was probably an early disciple (maybe the one who ran from the garden naked?) or at least got his info from Peter according to the accounts we have.
Luke doesn't claim to be an eyewitness, but to have collected the eyewitness stories (Luke 1:1-4). He was a companion of Paul and thus an eyewitness to the early church history (the famous 'we' passages).
You are welcome.
In other words, none of them claims to be an eyewitness. Later church tradition claimed that they were.
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Old 02-07-2005, 10:56 AM   #114
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Matthew was not written by an apostle and does not claim to be written by an apostle. It is dependent on secondary Greek sources and the Septuagint which means it cannot be a first hand account. The tradition that it was written by an apostle comes from a claom by Papias that Matthew had compiled a sayings gospel in Hebrew. No such sayings gospel has ever been found. If it ever existed it was not canonical Matthew which is not a sayings Gospel nor was it written in Hebrew.

Luke never claims to have interviewed witnesses.
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