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Old 11-19-2007, 12:08 PM   #11
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Arguably we are looking at Paul discussing something very different to a Eucharist.

A social gospel of helping the poor by ensuring they were fed? An illegal group of people coming together to improve their lot?

That alone is a direct attack on the Emperor - one of them stopped citizens banding together to create a fire service. Was there a get out clause about eating together for religious reasons?

Religious language and ritual would naturally be used to justify these treacherous acts - our god is more powerful than your emperor god.

Is this not an area there is evidence about? Spartacus? The whole Roman Economy based on a welfare benefit - the corn dole?

Are we looking at the growth of a new social institution that really did help the poor and that is why it was successful?

The later monasteries? The English new village system?


Would there not be archaelogical evidence of people eating communally?

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When you come together, it is not the lordly supper you eat, 21 for as you eat, each of you goes ahead without waiting for anybody else. One remains hungry, another gets drunk. 22 Don't you have homes to eat and drink in? Or do you despise the church of God and humiliate those who have nothing? What shall I say to you? Shall I praise you for this? Certainly not!
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Old 11-19-2007, 03:02 PM   #12
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It should be pointed out, BTW, that the Eucharist is not a communal meal. A communal meal serves to get oneself stuffed in a community-reinforcing fashion, and Paul's irate comments about the "haves" stuffing themselves first and/or not leaving anything for the have-nots fit this rather well. The Eucharist on the other hand serves to reaffirm certain (central) aspects of the mythology in a here-and-now fashion, and is comparable to a meal only in that some eating occurs: not the (communal) stuffing but rather the mythology is central.
You'll find good indications about the communal meal in the DSS. I don't think they support your reading.


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Old 11-19-2007, 03:29 PM   #13
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We have discussed 1 Cor 15:17-34 before
Minor typo here; this should be 1 Corinthians 11, not 15.
Taa.

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I am wondering what you would make of how Crossan reads this passage; in his view the distinction between during and after supper in the eucharistic heart of the pericope answers the Corinthians practice of not waiting for one another.
That's naughty. I was asking your opinion of my analysis! Does the text as I present it read coherently without the eucharist or do you find something missing in reading my reduced version?

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I have no trouble with the first part of what you posted, up to "In light of this problem, 11.23-25 makes perfect sense". The introduction of the eucharist turns what Paul was speaking about, a ritual meal involving bread and wine (that could be abused so that people could go with out while others become drunk) into a ritual about body and blood. Body and blood have nothing to do with the meal of bread and wine that Paul is trying to keep under control.

The Jewish ritual meal was meant to be eaten in all seriousness, so it's no wonder that Paul is attacking those who abuse the meal because they bring down condemnation upon themselves for their gluttonous attitude. The eucharist is only present in 11:23-27, not in the rest of the passage. It's about approach, not recognizing one's own body, gluttonizing, abusing other members of the community. His logic is "if we judged ourselves (by discerning our bodies), we would not be judged." There's no concession to the eucharist here.


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Old 11-19-2007, 03:40 PM   #14
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That's naughty. I was asking your opinion of my analysis! Does the text as I present it read coherently without the eucharist or do you find something missing in reading my reduced version?
Yes, it seems to read coherently. If the verses were not present, I doubt I would go looking for anything.

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Old 11-19-2007, 04:19 PM   #15
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it seems to read coherently. If the verses were not present, I doubt I would go looking for anything.
Thanks.

Do you think tou kuriou ("of the lord") after diakrinwn to swma ("discerning the body") was original to the text? If not, why do you think the interpolator felt it necessary to qualify "body" that way?


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Old 11-19-2007, 04:45 PM   #16
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Do you think tou kuriou ("of the lord") after diakrinwn to swma ("discerning the body") was original to the text?
I suspect not. P46, א, A, B, and C are a pretty strong and pretty early set.

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If not, why do you think the interpolator felt it necessary to qualify "body" that way?
I suspect the interpolator had verse 27 before him, which mentions the body and blood of the Lord. Verse 29 was vague without it, so he made its expression somewhat match that of verse 27.

(Discern the body is a fairly obscure saying anyway, no matter what body it refers to; I cannot decide whether in this case it is the body of the Lord, to which Paul has alluded in 10.16 and which the interpolator has recognized, the body of the individual participant, or the body of all participants as a church, to which Paul has alluded in 10.17 and to which he will return in chapter 12.)

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Old 11-19-2007, 05:16 PM   #17
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Do you think tou kuriou ("of the lord") after diakrinwn to swma ("discerning the body") was original to the text? If not, why do you think the interpolator felt it necessary to qualify "body" that way?
I suspect the interpolator had verse 27 before him, which mentions the body and blood of the Lord. Verse 29 was vague without it, so made its expression somewhat match that of verse 27.
Agreed.

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(Discern the body is a fairly obscure saying anyway, no matter what body it refers to; I cannot decide whether in this case it is the body of the Lord, to which Paul has alluded in 10.16 and which the interpolator has recognized, the body of the individual participant, or the body of all participants as a church, to which Paul has alluded in 10.17 and to which he will return in chapter 12.)
Would the doubting/judging/discerning of the body be obscure in the passage if it were as I originally presented it in the OP sans eucharist?


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Old 11-19-2007, 05:34 PM   #18
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(Discern the body is a fairly obscure saying anyway, no matter what body it refers to; I cannot decide whether in this case it is the body of the Lord, to which Paul has alluded in 10.16 and which the interpolator has recognized, the body of the individual participant, or the body of all participants as a church, to which Paul has alluded in 10.17 and to which he will return in chapter 12.)
Would the doubting/judging/discerning of the body be obscure in the passage if it were as I originally presented it in the OP sans eucharist?
To some extent, I think so. The first option (body of the Lord) would be gone, but the other two would still be there, I believe.

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Old 11-19-2007, 06:12 PM   #19
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Would the doubting/judging/discerning of the body be obscure in the passage if it were as I originally presented it in the OP sans eucharist?
To some extent, I think so. The first option (body of the Lord) would be gone, but the other two would still be there, I believe.
Strange. I can't see why you would contemplate "the body of all participants as a church," (to which you add "to which Paul has alluded in 10.17 and to which he will return in chapter 12") in the context of eating and drinking, especially when 10:17 specifically talks metaphorically of "the body of christ", while 12:12 again makes overt the metaphor and talks of "one body"... "so it is with christ". I see no reason from the context of the meal 11 to consider a metaphorical use. Where are the signs of metaphor (as can be seen in the other instances you mention)?


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Old 11-19-2007, 06:29 PM   #20
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Where are the signs of metaphor (as can be seen in the other instances you mention)?
It is mainly that I do not very well understand what judging the human body means. I mean, it is certainly possible that is what Paul means, something to do with the very next verse about getting sick, but what does he mean when he says that one should judge the body? What does judging the body look like?

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