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Old 04-26-2005, 12:10 PM   #91
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Originally Posted by spin
Would you like to attempt to state some sort of argument?

You are ready to go off on all sorts of tangents, incidentally avoiding your errors about Mary. Hey, fine, if you don't want to face anything, but make aspersions that don't really have any significance, then fine.

You have happily plowed off the track and into the bushes. Tell me when you come back.



spin
there is absolutely NO error about Mary vs. Miriam. These are two separate ideas. Mary is a part of the cult of Christ and is a Latin derived meaning, the mother of God whereas Jesus didn't even care about his mother Miriam and neither did the Nazarenes. Nobody cared about Miriam until Christians got a hold of this and started imposing their solar cult ideas on the Jesus cult of the Nazarenes, just like Buddha all of a sudden became Christian in the story of Barlaam and Joshaphat -- heck, Buddha even become a Christian martyr...!
Now if that can happen, I wonder why you are still so confused as to how the Mary tradition can be attached to the Miriam although they have completely different meanings. Mary is the mother of Christos the human solar sacrifice. Miriam is the forgotten mother of Jesus.

The New testament is a Christianized/pro-Roman rendition of the life of Jesus, just like Barlaam and Josaphat is a Romanized/Christianized retelling of the story of Buddha.
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Old 04-26-2005, 12:19 PM   #92
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Since when does Y is prince of X' mean Y is X?
not y is x, but that y is related closely to x. This implies he is a favored son of God.
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Old 04-26-2005, 12:44 PM   #93
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Originally Posted by Dharma
Elohim is a plural generic reference to generic divine beings.
That's great. But the passage in question doesn't call Abraham "Elohim". Nor is Moses called a G-d in the passage cited by your cut-and-paste. In general, sites with the word "messiah" in the name are not generally the most reliable sources on Jewish texts.
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Old 04-26-2005, 01:45 PM   #94
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Originally Posted by Dharma
there is absolutely NO error about Mary vs. Miriam. These are two separate ideas. Mary is a part of the cult of Christ and is a Latin derived meaning, the mother of God whereas Jesus didn't even care about his mother Miriam and neither did the Nazarenes.
Repeating these beliefs donesn't make them so.

Do the linguistics, which I have provided you with. Miriam -> Mariam -> Maria -> Mary. That's the trajectory. There's good evidence for it. Each of the steps are well-attested.

Now your anti-Catholic ravings against what they did with Mary is another issue.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
Nobody cared about Miriam until Christians got a hold of this and started imposing their solar cult ideas on the Jesus cult of the Nazarenes, just like Buddha all of a sudden became Christian in the story of Barlaam and Joshaphat -- heck, Buddha even become a Christian martyr...!
Barlaam and Joshaphat were very many centuries later. Your all over the place in your attempted harangue.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
Now if that can happen, I wonder why you are still so confused as to how the Mary tradition can be attached to the Miriam although they have completely different meanings. Mary is the mother of Christos the human solar sacrifice. Miriam is the forgotten mother of Jesus.

The New testament is a Christianized/pro-Roman rendition of the life of Jesus, just like Barlaam and Josaphat is a Romanized/Christianized retelling of the story of Buddha.
Your even further away from things here. You start off with a bitch session based on woeful linguistics, then you go off on tangents, and then tangents of tangents. Come back, will you, or you'll foat away into the cosmos.


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Old 04-28-2005, 03:17 AM   #95
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But what does all this have to do with the Pyramids?
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Old 04-28-2005, 09:27 AM   #96
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Originally Posted by spin
Repeating these beliefs donesn't make them so.

Do the linguistics, which I have provided you with. Miriam -> Mariam -> Maria -> Mary. That's the trajectory. There's good evidence for it. Each of the steps are well-attested.

Now your anti-Catholic ravings against what they did with Mary is another issue.


Barlaam and Joshaphat were very many centuries later. Your all over the place in your attempted harangue.


Your even further away from things here. You start off with a bitch session based on woeful linguistics, then you go off on tangents, and then tangents of tangents. Come back, will you, or you'll foat away into the cosmos.


spin
again, Spin, if you can tell me how and why there are 2 Mary's (dark and light) and how this is associated with the Jewish Miriam and Jewish worship and if Jews have common worship of Goddesses who are fair and dark...than you can elaborate further on the etymological basis of the Jewish "Miriam the rebel" somehow being the "Roman Mary the young lady".
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Old 04-28-2005, 12:39 PM   #97
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Originally Posted by Dharma
again, Spin, if you can tell me how and why there are 2 Mary's (dark and light) and how this is associated with the Jewish Miriam and Jewish worship and if Jews have common worship of Goddesses who are fair and dark...than you can elaborate further on the etymological basis of the Jewish "Miriam the rebel" somehow being the "Roman Mary the young lady".
What's your time reference??

What are you ancient references??

I am of course only interested in the early records of christianity and your fantastications beyond that don't mean much to me. They will be beyond the time when the name Maria was in use, so that silly part of your polemic is of no value.

You have not dealt with the obvious trajectory of Mary from Miriam to Mariam to Maria. In fact your outlandish suggestion working from the English Mary shows that you are clueless when it comes to the linguistics that you were trying to argue.

There are not just two Marys but at least three and probably four in the gospels. It was being sold as a common name. And of course you want to make the Hebrew bible's Miriam someone worshipped and add her to the list...


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Old 04-28-2005, 12:57 PM   #98
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Originally Posted by spin
What's your time reference??

What are you ancient references??

I am of course only interested in the early records of christianity and your fantastications beyond that don't mean much to me. They will be beyond the time when the name Maria was in use, so that silly part of your polemic is of no value.

You have not dealt with the obvious trajectory of Mary from Miriam to Mariam to Maria. In fact your outlandish suggestion working from the English Mary shows that you are clueless when it comes to the linguistics that you were trying to argue.

There are not just two Marys but at least three and probably four in the gospels. It was being sold as a common name. And of course you want to make the Hebrew bible's Miriam someone worshipped and add her to the list...


spin
the early records of Christianity have NOTHING to do with Jesus as the Jesus followers were called NAZARENES NOT CHRISTIANS.
And once more another title of Mary which supports my view of the word "Mary" deriving from the Roman, is the word "Madonna" which is another Roman word meaning "my lady" and corresponds with the Roman derived etymology of the word Mary and NOT THE HEBREW ---Italian, from Old Italian : ma-(variant of mia, my, from Latin mea. See Madame) + donna, lady (from Latin domina, lady. See Madame
Also there is a white madonna and a black madonna, so you have furnished no evidence of your assertion that Mary is derived from the Hebrew Miriam or that the Hebrew scriptures even deems goddess worship proper.

Jeremiah 44:4,27) also punishes any Jewish person who worships any "strange God or Goddess" including the "Queen of Heaven".
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Old 04-29-2005, 12:32 AM   #99
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Originally Posted by Dharma
the early records of Christianity have NOTHING to do with Jesus as the Jesus followers were called NAZARENES NOT CHRISTIANS.
This is irrelevant. Besides they seemed to have used several names, Galileans, Nazoreans, the way, etc. Supposedly the name christian was given to them by gentiles.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
And once more another title of Mary which supports my view of the word "Mary" deriving from the Roman, is the word "Madonna" which is another Roman word meaning "my lady" and corresponds with the Roman derived etymology of the word Mary and NOT THE HEBREW ---Italian, from Old Italian : ma-(variant of mia, my, from Latin mea. See Madame) + donna, lady (from Latin domina, lady.
Doh!

Well, of course the word "madonna" is Italian. SFW?

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Originally Posted by Dharma
Also there is a white madonna and a black madonna, so you have furnished no evidence of your assertion that Mary is derived from the Hebrew Miriam or that the Hebrew scriptures even deems goddess worship proper.
Ground control to Dharma. There's something wrong. Can you hear me Dharma? Can you hear me...

I have to repeat this: look at the LXX translation of Miriam and you find what?? :banghead:

Yeah, Mariam. And what's the problem with that in a declined language?? :banghead:

You can't decline it. So what happens?? :banghead:

You make it declinable. Lo and behold, "Maria"!!

It's that simple, Dharma. The wheel has already been invented, Dharma, and it is round.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
Jeremiah 44:4,27) also punishes any Jewish person who worships any "strange God or Goddess" including the "Queen of Heaven".
Yahweh had a consort in early Judaism. Asherah, the queen of heaven.


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Old 04-29-2005, 06:50 AM   #100
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Originally Posted by spin
Well, of course the word "madonna" is Italian. SFW?
Madonna, she's Italian?...here I thought she was American singer

Next, someone will be telling us that London is the Land of Dan, a lost Jewish tribe.

Watch out for the prickly end of the pin...

Carry on this....?
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