Dharma

Interestingly enough, most modern etymologists claim that "Christos" is Greek for Messiach which means the "annointed one" and supposedly comes from "khriein" which means to rub (thus Christians would be the "rubbed ones, or smeared ones", however, smeared with WHAT? Sounds like an unlikely etymology...however, I have found something far more reasonable:
both Khriein(to rub) and khein (to pour an oil libation) seem to be related...

So essentially Christos would be another way of simply saying "God", i.e. one to whom you pour a libation...

Chris Weimer

Actually, as pointed out in the pronunciation of Jesus thread, Christos meant "oil used for anointing" in Classical literature.

Dharma

Christos was supposed to be a valid translation of the word "Messiach" in the LXX which was a translation attributed to Jews who knew Greek and Hebrew. I would be happy to see the use of this word at all in pre-biblical Greek literature, however, so far noone has an example.

So if you say "Christos means 'oil' used for annointing" Christians simply means "the oil people"...

yummyfur

You might want to look at the Septuagint's usage and compare it to the Hebrew.

A good example would be Samuel 1 2:35. messiach=christou

There are plenty of other example in the OT like this, so I don't think there really is any question here. By the way messiach comes from the verb mashach, which also means "to rub" "to smear". Since the Septuagint often uses christos for annointed and never that I know of, to mean god, I would assume it means just that.

GakuseiDon

Does this mean that the Terminator represents the Second Coming? "Oil be back!" (Note: unconnected attempt at humour) :angel:

yummyfur

Euripedes' Hippolytus

"Phaedra

potera de christon ê poton to pharmakon;

This drug, is it an ointment or a potion?"

Aeschylus' Prometheus Bound

"ou christon, oude piston, alla pharmakôn

no ointment, nor any drink, but medicine"

Chris Weimer

"And the oilies shall rule the earth."

Dharma

Thanks yummyfur!

The Judeo-OINTMENT values...how precious!

Dharma

http://www.karenlyster.com/body_bookish3.html
Readers of the 1st century would have been fully conversant with the two-part ritual of the sacred marriage of a dynastic heir. Jesus, as we know, was a Messiah, which means quite simply an 'Anointed One'. In fact, all anointed senior priests and Davidic kings were Messiahs; Jesus was not unique in this regard. Although not an ordained priest, he gained his right to Messiah status by way of descent from King David and the kingly line, but he did not achieve that status until he was ritually anointed by Mary Magdalene in her capacity as a bridal high priestess.


The word 'Messiah' comes from the Hebrew verb mashiach: 'to anoint', which derives from the Egyptian messeh: 'the holy crocodile'. It was with the fat of the messeh that the Pharaoh's sister-brides anointed their husbands on marriage, and the Egyptian custom sprang from kingly practice in old Mesopotamia. In the Old Testament's Song of Solomon we learn of the bridal anointing of the king. It is detailed that the oil used in Judah was the fragrant ointment of spikenard (an expensive root oil from the Himalayas) and it is explained that this ritual was performed while the kingly husband sat at the table.

In the New Testament, the anointing of Jesus by Mary Magdalene was indeed performed while he sat at the table, and specifically with the bridal ointment of spikenard. Afterwards, Mary wiped Jesus's feet with her hair and, on the first occasion of the two-part ceremony, she wept. All of these things signify the marital anointing of a dynastic heir.

Chris Weimer

That was utterly useless, but thanks for sharing it anyway.