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Old 07-23-2004, 02:41 PM   #31
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Originally Posted by Chili
The bible is all metaphor unless stated otherwise. Go to John 6:55 and you will see that the "body and blood of Christ is real food and real drink" to say that that line is not metaphor. If the bible says this to be true why would we not accept that and read the rest as if it was metaphor?

so then you don't exist. the creation was just a metorphor, the birth of christ, his death, forgiveness, salvation, hell, the existence of god....hey, it works for me.
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Old 07-23-2004, 03:13 PM   #32
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Magus,

Not to be too particular, but the "S" in Harry Truman's name is simply the letter, no middle name, so there is no abbreviation there. So, it should be spelled as "Harry S Truman" and not "Harry S. Truman." But that's beside the point.

I'm not going to get into the semantics of genocide, but I'm trying to follow your logic. If we are guilty of waging war and therefore we cannot judge the morality of a war commanded by God, does that then give us the license to call other wars "amoral?" If God does it, surely that makes it acceptable for people to do it, too right? If not, that means that God is NOT a perfect being or all-loving.

Of course the Crusades were not immoral, were they? The Spanish Inquisition? How about the Children's Crusades? Let's send our children to Iraq if God has commanded someone, anyone...

Think more about the God you serve.

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Old 07-23-2004, 03:44 PM   #33
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Originally Posted by widowvirgin
i'm not looking for an excuse or reason as to why god did it. i'm am simply stating that he created genocide! that's it! if you wanna justify it, fine...that's another argument. if you wanna condemn it, that's fine too.

...ok...I'll bite...what are you looking for?
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Old 07-24-2004, 09:00 AM   #34
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Originally Posted by IAsimisI
Yep..or our false perception of God.
"Our?"

As in, yours and mine? Then, what gives you the right to speak for me?

Or:

"Our," meaning: 1st century CE Jews and God-Fearers? Why call those folks "us?"

Never mind about the next undefined word, "false."
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Old 07-24-2004, 09:10 AM   #35
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Originally Posted by Magdlyn
"Our?"

As in, yours and mine? Then, what gives you the right to speak for me?

Or:

"Our," meaning: 1st century CE Jews and God-Fearers? Why call those folks "us?"

Never mind about the next undefined word, "false."

I was speaking for myself not for you or anyone else. Nitpicking is unnecessary.
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Old 07-24-2004, 09:14 AM   #36
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Not nitpicking, just striving for clarity. So when you said, "our false perception of God," you meant, "my false perception of God." So you think you perceive God falsely then?
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Old 07-24-2004, 09:21 AM   #37
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Originally Posted by Magdlyn
Not nitpicking, just striving for clarity. So when you said, "our false perception of God," you meant, "my false perception of God." So you think you perceive God falsely then?
Nope..I was speaking about the OT..which (to clarify: according to me) is our false perception of God because The Son had not revealed him to us as stated in the NT. Which is why the God of the Old Testament(the Demiurge) is fallible and very human or imperfect.

This could get into a lenghty explanation but right now I have to head out.
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Old 07-24-2004, 05:36 PM   #38
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Originally Posted by jdlongmire
...ok...I'll bite...what are you looking for?

a christian, catholic, or any religous person that believes in the bible must accept the fact that god is indeed the creator of genocide, right?
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Old 07-24-2004, 06:05 PM   #39
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Originally Posted by widowvirgin
a christian, catholic, or any religous person that believes in the bible must accept the fact that god is indeed the creator of genocide, right?
Only if one accepts that the first recorded instances of genocide occured at God's command. If we can place the first instance of the deliberate and systematic extermination of a distinct demographic group before the time at which God is alleged to have issued his command, then we cannot support the allegation that he "created" genocide (we can assert that he condoned it, encouraged it, and failed to stop it, though).
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Old 07-24-2004, 06:13 PM   #40
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Originally Posted by reprise
Only if one accepts that the first recorded instances of genocide occured at God's command. If we can place the first instance of the deliberate and systematic extermination of a distinct demographic group before the time at which God is alleged to have issued his command, then we cannot support the allegation that he "created" genocide (we can assert that he condoned it, encouraged it, and failed to stop it, though).
you make a good point, and i'm not gonna disagree.

but now (not trying to be hardheaded) how does one prove any genocide before that recorded in the bible.
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