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Old 12-16-2003, 02:43 AM   #31
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Originally posted by Godless Wonder
I think my new favorite (used to be Mark 9.1) might be "Matthew's Big Blunder" in which Matthew puts Jesus in the silly position of simultaneously riding a donkey and a colt. Why? Because he was trying to fabricate a prophecy fulfillment, but the translation of the supposedly prophetic statements in Zechariah 9:9 was botched, leading to a botched prophecy fulfillment. details here.
I've never understood why this was a problem. If the "them" in Matthew refers to the clothes, which DOES make sense in context, then there is no problem.
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Old 12-16-2003, 02:48 AM   #32
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Originally posted by Goliath
Nope, the quote I'm thinking of describes a pool whose circumference is three times its diameter (I think it's in 1 Kings somewhere...I can look it up in the SAB, if you'd like).

Besides, the bible is the word of a god, whence any inaccuracy of any kind is inexcusable (not to mention, easy to find).

Sincerely,

Goliath
You're confusing "accuracy" with "precision".

Which of the following statements are true?

(1) "Pi" to 2 decimal places is 3.14
(2) "Pi" to 1 decimal places is 3.1
(3) "Pi" to 0 decimal places is 3
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Old 12-16-2003, 08:13 AM   #33
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Originally posted by GakuseiDon

If the "them" in Matthew refers to the clothes, which DOES make sense in context, then there is no problem.
To say that the disciples set Jesus upon the clothes as opposed to upon the asses, doesn't really solve the problem.

Mt. 21:7 [KJV] "And brought the ass, and the colt, and put on them their clothes, and they set him thereon."

Mt. 21:7 [AV] "They brought the donkey and the colt and laid their coats upon them, and He seated Himself on them [the coats]."

On which coats? The ones on the donkey or the ones on the colt?
If, as makes sense, Jesus intended to only ride one or the other, why did the disciples bother to put coats on both?

Further, it is primarily "Matthew's" apparent misunderstanding of Jewish literary parallelism which is of interest here. For someone who is presumably Jewish and writing for a Jewish audience, this is a curious misconstruction.

Zech. 9:9 [KJV] ". . . and riding upon an ass, and upon a colt the foal of an ass."

Here, in Zechariah, the ass and the colt are one and the same animal.

In Mt. 21:2, however, it is made clear that two separate animals are intended.

Mt. 21:2 ". . . ye shall find an ass tied, and a colt with her . . ."


Namaste'

Amlodhi
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Old 12-16-2003, 08:18 AM   #34
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Originally posted by GakuseiDon
You're confusing "accuracy" with "precision".

Which of the following statements are true?

(1) "Pi" to 2 decimal places is 3.14
(2) "Pi" to 1 decimal places is 3.1
(3) "Pi" to 0 decimal places is 3
Doesn't change the fact that a supposedly divine book gets Pi wrong. Pi is not 3 no matter how you want to get into semantics about precision.
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Old 12-16-2003, 01:49 PM   #35
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Originally posted by Amlodhi
To say that the disciples set Jesus upon the clothes as opposed to upon the asses, doesn't really solve the problem.

Mt. 21:7 [KJV] "And brought the ass, and the colt, and put on them their clothes, and they set him thereon."

Mt. 21:7 [AV] "They brought the donkey and the colt and laid their coats upon them, and He seated Himself on them [the coats]."

On which coats? The ones on the donkey or the ones on the colt?
The ones on the colt, but the only reason to think that is to match the context of the typology.

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If, as makes sense, Jesus intended to only ride one or the other, why did the disciples bother to put coats on both?
That is a good point, and shows a weakness in my explanation. Perhaps because the disciples didn't know which one Jesus wanted to ride? But then, what would Jesus riding both mean? I'm assuming that it made sense to Matthew somehow.

I should note that the Greek word "autos" can mean "it, he, she, them". It is translated as "her" in Mat 21:2. If it is "and put their clothes on it", then that would solve that problem.

I'm a total novice in ancient Greek, so I'd be interested in the comments of anyone with knowledge in that area.

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[Further, it is primarily "Matthew's" apparent misunderstanding of Jewish literary parallelism which is of interest here. For someone who is presumably Jewish and writing for a Jewish audience, this is a curious misconstruction.

Zech. 9:9 [KJV] ". . . and riding upon an ass, and upon a colt the foal of an ass."

Here, in Zechariah, the ass and the colt are one and the same animal.

In Mt. 21:2, however, it is made clear that two separate animals are intended.

Mt. 21:2 ". . . ye shall find an ass tied, and a colt with her . . ."
Yes, THAT is the thing I don't understand. Why the assumption that Matthew got Zech wrong? Why can't Matthew talk about 2 animals, and Zechariah talk about one?

True, Matthew MAY have got Zech wrong, and so wrote in accordance to what he thought. But AFAICS, there is no reason to think this, except by assuming it in the first place. If we read the passage as is, then Zech talks about one animal, and Matthew talks about two. But so what? The typology is Jesus riding on the colt - the presence of another donkey, or the disciples, or the clothes for that matter, isn't relevent to that.
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Old 12-16-2003, 01:57 PM   #36
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Originally posted by Weltall
Doesn't change the fact that a supposedly divine book gets Pi wrong. Pi is not 3 no matter how you want to get into semantics about precision.
So, is the statement "Pi to 0 decimal places is 3" correct or incorrect? (Hint: "Incorrect" is the wrong answer)

It isn't a question of semantics, but mathematics. This "error" has to be one of the most ridiculous ones listed.
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Old 12-16-2003, 03:25 PM   #37
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Originally posted by GakuseiDon
You're confusing "accuracy" with "precision".

Which of the following statements are true?

(1) "Pi" to 2 decimal places is 3.14
(2) "Pi" to 1 decimal places is 3.1
(3) "Pi" to 0 decimal places is 3
I'm sorry, but the pool described allegedly has a circumference that is three times its diameter. The bible did not specify a number of decimal places, whence the authors of the bible assert that pi=3.

Sincerely,

Goliath
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Old 12-16-2003, 03:26 PM   #38
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Originally posted by GakuseiDon
This "error" has to be one of the most ridiculous ones listed.
Why is it ridiculous? Because it's one of the errors that is most easily shown to be irrefutably incorrect?

Sincerely,

Goliath
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Old 12-16-2003, 06:42 PM   #39
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Originally posted by Goliath
I'm sorry, but the pool described allegedly has a circumference that is three times its diameter. The bible did not specify a number of decimal places, whence the authors of the bible assert that pi=3.
The "molten sea" you're talking about was described as being 10 cubits in diameter and 30 cubits in circumference. (c.f. 1 Kings 7:23 and 2 Chronicles 4:2)

If we assume that the folks writing Kings and Chronicles were rounding off the measurements to the nearest whole number -- the diameter could've been 9.7 cubits, which rounds to 10, and the circumference could've beel 30.47 cubits, which rounds to 30 -- then the authors were correct.
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Old 12-16-2003, 06:54 PM   #40
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Originally posted by GakuseiDon [ . . . ] Yes, THAT is the thing I don't understand. Why the assumption that Matthew got Zech wrong? Why can't Matthew talk about 2 animals, and Zechariah talk about one?

True, Matthew MAY have got Zech wrong, and so wrote in accordance to what he thought. But AFAICS, there is no reason to think this, except by assuming it in the first place. If we read the passage as is, then Zech talks about one animal, and Matthew talks about two. But so what? The typology is Jesus riding on the colt - the presence of another donkey, or the disciples, or the clothes for that matter, isn't relevent to that. [/B]
Because Matthew is generally believed to be later than Mark and Luke. In Mark, it says, regarding the colt (kjv):
Quote:
Mark 11.2 And saith unto them, Go your way into the village over against you: and as soon as ye be entered into it, ye shall find a colt tied, whereon never man sat; loose him, and bring him.
No mention of an ass. And in Luke:
Quote:
Saying, Go ye into the village over against you; in the which at your entering ye shall find a colt tied, whereon yet never man sat: loose him, and bring him hither.
Again, no mention of the ass. But Matthew:
Quote:
21:002 Saying unto them, Go into the village over against you, and straightway ye shall find an ass tied, and a colt with her: loose them, and bring them unto me.

21:003 And if any man say ought unto you, ye shall say, The Lord hath need of them; and straightway he will send them.

21:004 All this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying,

21:005 Tell ye the daughter of Sion, Behold, thy King cometh unto thee, meek, and sitting upon an ass, and a colt the foal of an ass.
Matthew specifically inserts and asserts a prophecy fulfillment, but he's busted on insertion of the ass.

edit to add: Here's Zechariah for comparison:
Quote:
Zech 9:009 Rejoice greatly, O daughter of Zion; shout, O daughter of Jerusalem: behold, thy King cometh unto thee: he is just, and having salvation; lowly, and riding upon an ass, and upon a colt the foal of an ass.
Pretty clear. But the weird thing is, it is clear that Matthew refers to 2 animals ("them") yet he still refers to Jesus riding them both simultaneously ("sitting upon an ass, and a colt") which is strange enough. Combine that with the clear similarity to the words of Zechariah 9:9, and it's pretty damning evidence.
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