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Old 02-11-2013, 03:48 PM   #51
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aa, do you not understand passive clauses?
Do you not understand that the letter is about the Christians??
Pliny letter to Trajan
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I therefore postponed the investigation and hastened to consult you. For the matter seemed to me to warrant consulting you, especially because of the number involved.

For many persons of every age, every rank, and also of both sexes are and will be endangered.

For the contagion of this superstition has spread not only to the cities but also to the villages and farms.

But it seems possible to check and cure it. It is certainly quite clear that the temples, which had been almost deserted, have begun to be frequented, that the established religious rites, long neglected, are being resumed, and that from everywhere sacrificial animals are coming, for which until now very few purchasers could be found. Hence it is easy to imagine what a multitude of people can be reformed if an opportunity for repentance is afforded.
The Christian Superstition has spread all over--in the cities, the villages and farms.

Bithynia is being inundated by Christians who sacrificied animals.

The geography of the Jesus cult is NOT Bithynia.

Lucian, a Non-Apologetic source claimed there were Christians who worshiped a crucified man as a God in Palestine in the 2nd century.

Pliny's Christians did NOT even claim their Christ was crucified.
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Old 02-11-2013, 04:46 PM   #52
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Thanks for the clarification.

For the sake of the argument what if the late forger simply changed the name of another group being persecuted (such as "Jews") which was originally preserved in Pliny's letters to Trajan to the group name of "Christians"?

One historian tells us that Trajan had 2000 Jews of the city of Emmaus crucified in the early 2nd century. Pliny may have been asking Trajan what he was supposed to do with the Jews.
Apart from the general improbability IMO of this suggestion

Thanks for making the response to this suggestion anyway Andrew.

IMO you are one of the members here that continually adds content to the discussion threads on many issues regardless of their probability or improbability and I wish (perhaps in vain) that others here (no names of course) might see the sense in doing the same.

Quote:
... we have not only the references to Christians but also the references to Christ (e.g. sing responsively a hymn to Christ as to a god).

I'm not sure what the original would be here if the letters originally dealt with Jews.
For the sake of the argument we could start with the god of Moses.

In regard to general improbabilities and probabilities, the suggestion that a 14th or 15th century academic came across a rare cache of letters including a letter exchange between a governor Pliny and a Roman Emperor Trajan where these two well known historical people were discussing Christians needs itself to be analysed. There are problems with it.

For example why didn't any Christian academic between the 2nd and the 14th century mention the existence of such a favourable citation to the historical existence of early Christians? I have seen answers to this question which make an appeal to the criterion of embarrassment and I don't want to go there.

In regard to general improbabilities and probabilities, the suggestion that a 14th or 15th century academic came across a rare cache of letters which instead presented Trajan and Pliny discussing the contagion of the Jews seems to be far more probable, all things being considered. Trajan was rather ruthless in his persecution against the Jews, and Pliny's requests on how Pliny should handle the problem of the Jews might be seen as Pliny wondering whether he should pursue such a hard line as his Emperor apparently did.

FWIW I don't know what the original manuscript actually said, and neither does any academic today because at some time after the Pliny-Trajan letter exchange was published in the 15th century the original manuscript was lost.

This is in itself rather suspicious. If the original manuscript actually related to the imperial government persecuting Christians then one would expect that such a manuscript would be very valuable evidence. OTOH if the original manuscript actually related to the imperial government persecuting Jews, but that someone had altered reference to the Jews (and their god) to a reference for Christians (and their god), then one would expect that the original of such a manuscript would never see the light of day.
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Old 02-11-2013, 05:18 PM   #53
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IMO you are one of the members here that continually adds content to the discussion threads on many issues regardless of their probability or improbability and I wish (perhaps in vain) that others here (no names of course) might see the sense in doing the same...
Andrew clearly states that he is giving an opinion--NOT evidence.

His input has consistently been to cast doubt on any evidence against the Church.
Andrew appears not able to admit that early Christian history has ZERO evidence for the 1st century.

Andrew must know that the word "Christ" alone does NOT refer to any specific person.

Theophilus of Antioch demonstrates that people of antiquity were called Christians because they themselves were Christ [Anointed].

Essentially, Theophilus of Antioch was Christ [Anointed]

Theophilus' To Autolycus
Quote:
And about your laughing at me and calling me "Christian," you know not what you are saying. First, because that which is anointed is sweet and serviceable, and far from contemptible. ............. Wherefore we are called Christians on this account, because we are anointed with the oil of God.
Again, examine Tertullian's Ad Nationes"
Quote:
...The name Christian, however, so far as its meaning goes, bears the sense of anointing...
Jesus did NOT have to exist for people to call themselves Christians because the word Christian is derived from the Greek word for Anointing.

Theophilus of Antioch and Athenagoras of Antioch called themselves Christians without ever making mention of Jesus Christ.

Quote:
Wherefore we are called Christians on this account, because we are anointed with the oil of God.
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Old 02-11-2013, 05:44 PM   #54
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Default The Geography of Mark

Mark doesn't know Palestinian Geography.

Mark 7:31

And again he went out from the borders of Tyre, and came through Sidon unto the sea of Galilee, through the midst of the borders of Decapolis.




Wow, talk about blowing it! You would not go north to go South!

Tyre is on the coast, the furthest west and in the middle. Sidon is North, also on the coast. The Sea of Galilee is Southeast of Tyre. I have placed yellow marks at each city of the Decapolis. One is approximate and the rest I located exactly.

You encounter the Sea of Galilee before you enter the midst of the decapolis too, so this Geography in Mark couldn't be worse!
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Old 02-11-2013, 06:23 PM   #55
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Wonder he didn't go by way of Damscus, Unlike Rabbi Avram Belinski, he gots no took-iss for to follow. Meebe he justs gots lost in da wilderness fer 40 weeks?

'Chickie-chickie-chickie-chicken! Come here, ....'I don't want to hurt you, I just want to eat you. ...I don't want to hurt you! I just want to make you kosher!' :Cheeky:
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Old 02-12-2013, 03:54 PM   #56
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Default Further Embarassment of Mark the not-Geographer

This is a better map of Mark's Geographic ignorance because the major and minor roads are marked:



To go from Tyre to Galilee would be directly East to Ceasaria Philippi, then South. You would get to the Sea before going through the midst of the Decapolis.

So how far away do you have to live from here in order to be this screwed up on geography? You can't be from anywhere near this region. The author of Mark is somewhere distant, yet in that Greek Sphere of the Eastern Empire.


Edit: Check this anti-skeptic site out that omits the critical road from the map above:


http://www.errantskeptics.org/TyreSidonMaps.htm

They show the mountain range being in the way to the East of Tyre, and anyone who can read the maps I have shown demonstrates that. But there is still a road there, and omitting it is... a lie for Jesus!
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Old 02-12-2013, 05:53 PM   #57
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No road leading from Sidon except back to Tyre, or further North, right off the map.

Definitly a weird route to take to reach the Sea of Galilee.


I note they show another road leading South-East out of Sidon, that does not appear on your map.
And as you say, they omit the road on you map that goes almost due East to Ceasaria Philippi.

Your map appears much more detailed, yet does not have that road SE from Sidon that they show.
Sombody's map here is less than accurate.
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Old 02-12-2013, 06:08 PM   #58
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No road leading from Sidon except back to Tyre, or further North, right off the map.

Definitly a weird route to take to reach the Sea of Galilee.
The author of gMark never claimed he was writing history.

Jesus in gMark used to WALK on the sea.

Mark 6:48 KJV
Quote:
And he saw them toiling in rowing ; for the wind was contrary unto them: and about the fourth watch of the night he cometh unto them, walking upon the sea, and would have passed by them.
The Jesus story in gMark does NOT require history, biology or geography.
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Old 02-12-2013, 06:13 PM   #59
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I agree with you that Mark was writing fiction, but agree with rlogan that the writer seems to be a foreigner unfamiliar with the territory.
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Old 02-12-2013, 07:33 PM   #60
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I agree with you that Mark was writing fiction, but agree with rlogan that the writer seems to be a foreigner unfamiliar with the territory.
Well, you must agree that he was unfamiliar with the specific gravity of the sea and the human body or a foreigner to reality.
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