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Old 05-01-2007, 06:13 PM   #21
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Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson View Post
Well, I give D weight if it agrees with Alexandrians (other than 01 in John and other than B in Paul).
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I myself give D weight if it agrees with my point of view.
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But that's just the thing, isn't it? Everybody likes D when it agrees with them.
For the record, I did not say that I like D when it agrees with me. I said I give D (more) weight when it agrees with witnesses on an independent branch of the stemma (basically the Alexandrians except where they seem contaminated by Western readings (e.g. 01 in John and B in Paul) are not therefore independent). You can reverse it too: I give the Alexandrians more weight when they agree with D.

This is straightforward stemmatics, and, in terms of contemporary eclecticism, I'm talking about D's weight for purposes of external evidence.

Stephen
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Old 05-01-2007, 06:20 PM   #22
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First, it is reasonable to apply this to John 5?
The stemma is based only on the evidence of John 4. To the extent that John 5 has a similar textual history as John 4 (which reasonable except in cases of block mixture), the hypothesis of textual history described by the John 4 can be tested, to some extent, with evidence from John 5.

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Second (and assuming it is), my Greek NT gives the variations in a footnote. Basically 5:4 is omitted in P66 & 75, ℵ, B, C, D & W, and inserted in A, K, L, X, Δ, Θ, and Ψ. I have found all these on the stemma, and I see that the first text that includes the verse would be somewhere about node [48] or [42], two or three nodes down the middle of Stephen's great branches. Most of the manuscripts below this point have the verse, most of the others don't (there are interesting exceptions, which IIUC are allowed for by his "mixed" descent - eg C omits the verse). Is that an accurate-ish picture?
I think you're getting the picture.

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If so, it'd be amazing - with this tool, you'd be able to PREDICT variations in any given manuscript - a prediction that could be falsified. In another page Stephen says this technique is only possible for the NT with recent advances in computing power, tho' it's well proven with texts with fewer varying copies. In a way, this is a more detailed and intricate version of what scholars have always done when trying to decide which of the Gospels influenced which. Very exciting development!
Thanks.

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Third. Am I right in saying the stemma is a relationship chart, and not a chronological one?
Yes, you are very much right.

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(BTW - today is my birthday, so if above is amateurish nonsense and a complete misunderstanding of elementary principles... nobody is allowed to say so.)
Happy Birthday. You seem to grasp the fundamental concepts, and I'm not just saying so because of your birthday.

Stephen
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Old 05-01-2007, 06:28 PM   #23
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Hi Folks,

Returning to the OP.

Big Jim is actually making a very valid point, one that was made by Professor Maurice Robinson and noted on IIDB in February. These verses are powerful testimony that the Received Text is original and the alexandrian manuscripts are corrupt.

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Why is this passage removed from some translations? ... It seems very important to the context of vs. 7.... ..but without it, verse 7 is meaningless. Why would the lame man try to get in the water when it's stirred (or "troubled" KJV)? Also why would the lame & cripled hang out around the pool without the explanation?...
The earlier thread was

http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.php?t=198298
John 5:1-7

Please note specifically the Maurice Robinson quote.
Your original sense of this was spot-on.

Shalom,
Steven
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Old 05-01-2007, 07:41 PM   #24
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Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson View Post
For the record, I did not say that I like D when it agrees with me. I said I give D (more) weight when it agrees with witnesses on an independent branch of the stemma (basically the Alexandrians except where they seem contaminated by Western readings (e.g. 01 in John and B in Paul) are not therefore independent). You can reverse it too: I give the Alexandrians more weight when they agree with D.
Well, I do hope that you realize that I said that somewhat tongue-in-cheek. That being said, the above paragraph could be condensed down to, "I agree with any text that agrees with the Alexandrian text type."
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This is straightforward stemmatics, and, in terms of contemporary eclecticism, I'm talking about D's weight for purposes of external evidence.
To be sure, considering the unique nature of the ms, any agreement adds more weight than a 'normal' manuscript. Does this mean I can put your name down in the 'disagree' column when it comes to W+H's Western Non-interpolations? I am rather curious where you stand on that issue.

Julian

P.S. I do truly agree that any Alexandrian support from D is significant, we are not really at odds here.
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Old 05-01-2007, 08:38 PM   #25
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To be sure, considering the unique nature of the ms, any agreement adds more weight than a 'normal' manuscript. Does this mean I can put your name down in the 'disagree' column when it comes to W+H's Western Non-interpolations? I am rather curious where you stand on that issue.
Actually, I lean toward Hort's position on the Western Non-Interpolations.

Stephen
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Old 05-01-2007, 08:53 PM   #26
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Cover me, guys, I'm going in...
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These verses are powerful testimony that the Received Text is original and the alexandrian manuscripts are corrupt.
No, they really aren't. Very few qualified people will agree with that statement. How come that general/prior knowledge can be assumed on the part of the audience when it suits you, while other sentences make no sense when the text conflicts with the majority text? By the way, which text do you support, Steven? Majority? Byzantine? Textus Receptus? You do know that they are not identical, right?
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Please note specifically the Maurice Robinson quote.
Yeah, I am noting it. I hate to attack Robinson because I consider him knowledgable and an asset to the field. That doesn't change the fact, however, that his knowledge and skill are sometimes twisted by that bizarre, twisted religious bias that relegates him to wearing the jester's cap. Let's look at his confused uttering.
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Originally Posted by Maurice Robinson
Accidental omission hardly seems likely in regard to such a variant,
Here he is arguing that it is a deliberate omission by the orthodox to prevent the worship of angels and paying heed to superstitious healing pools and so forth. Yeah, they would never want worship of angels, or saints, or relics, holy spirits, or doctrinal inventions. Now, in all fairness Robinson's point is not entirely invalid if he places the omission early enough but doing that he runs out of evidence. Tough break, Maurice.
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especially when some witnesses only omit verse 4 while others omit 3b and 4, and still others include 3b and omit 4.
A look inside Robinson's disciplined mind. Some 'only omit 4' while others 'include 3b and omit 4.' Do they seem COMPLETELY IDENTICAL? Prax, I am glad you drew attention to this statement, it shows his razor sharp mind at work. And who, exactly, is it that keeps 3b and omits 4? That would be D, 33, and Wsup. Aren't those the witnesses that TR/Maj/Bz people love to hate when it suits them? Robinson's argument is heartfelt, I am sure, but he has no significant evidence to back up his deluded ideas. I am thinking that one basic scientific methodology course would have done him a world of good.
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Such "mixed" recensional activity was faulty, however, in that it none of it addressed (for whatever reason) the problem of the wording of verse 7;
More silliness. Why does it have to explain verse 7? And if you feel it should, can I point out hundreds of other verses where assumptions are made? You know, culture, environment, common knowledge, and many other things may have changed a bit... Can I point those out? No? Didn't think so... Then don't start down this road.
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yet that easily could have been recensionally altered by a similar curtailing and replacement of the text into something like "Do you want to become whole?" "Sir, I have no man, in order that he should assist me"). Yet recensional activity, even when clearly evidenced,
Too bad, Maurice, that almost all actual EVIDENCE is against you. This may hurt you but your opinions aren't really evidence.
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is not always wholly rational,
Riiiight, straight from the expert. Apparently, wholly rational arguments aren't necessary. Why aren't god helping him out here?
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so this fact occasions me no major difficulty, even when charging recensional activity in those early witnesses in regard to vv.3b-4.
What is really sad is that a fanatical christian like Robinson cannot see the christian message in this story, being blinded by his byzantine neurons mis-firing all over the place. The point is that Jesus simply heals. He doesn't need superstition, healing pools, artificial whatchamacallit. This theme appears again and again. He is god and can do whatever he needs to do without theatrics. (This isn't actually my opinion, just an observation, albeit an obvious one).

Julian
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Old 05-02-2007, 01:13 AM   #27
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Why is this passage removed from some translations? Specifically the NIV leaves it out. On bibleGateway.com there's a a footnote explaining that "some less important documents" add the passage. It seems very important to the context of vs. 7.

Here's the relevant passage. The red text is missing from some translations, but the bolded text doesn't make sense without it.
The angel of the Lord is not the Holy Spirit. The passage in red spells out the way things go in charismatic movements where the Sheep Pool is the 'hotseat' (prayer chair) where the sick (cowards) get done one by each as moved by their own desire to be healed and counted among the righteous.

Notice that the one man was 38 and he had no one to 'push' him onto the prayer chair except God and therefore was healed and also became a precinct man like Jesus was. And what follows? Sabbath arrived for him as if it was the the seventh day of creation whereon sin is no more = religion has come to an end and he is not to return to his vomit lest things get worse for him and he becomes just another one like the rest of them.
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Old 05-02-2007, 02:10 AM   #28
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Thank you to Stephen Carlson and Julian for explaining about cladistics. This was the first I'd heard about the method being applied to BC&H, and it rocks. So much of the debate in BC&H could have been had a hundred years ago (some of it was), and now here's something genuinely new and exciting.

I can see cladistics in BC&H differs from cladistics in evolution in two ways. (a) There's no a priori reason for living creatures to arrange themselves in the tidy tree-like structure we observe in nature - indeed, it's exactly because they do that we need the theory of evolution. But there IS an invincible a priori reason why manuscripts should arrange themselves in a tree - simply, people copied them with alternations. Because of this difference some of the more philosophical problems with using the method in biology don't apply here, and it would seem to be even more robust. (b) On the other hand, Biblical Critics have to cope with "hybrids", manuscripts of mixed descent - unlike biologists (or animal biologists, at least). The possibility of hybrids introduces more degrees of freedom, and I can't see parsimony alone can eliminate that... I predict that BC&H cladistics will still be half-science, half-black-art for some time.... Still, at least it makes predictions and can be tested, unlike most other methodologies.
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Old 05-02-2007, 04:12 AM   #29
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The danger of cladistics lies in the application of parsimony principles to human beings. While nature would seem to do things in a generally parsimonious manner the same does not always hold true for people. Now, it can certainly be observed that cladistics mostly hold true for human endeavors and that parsimony is a valid approach. Cladistics, however, cannot account well for such things as zeal, ineptitude, doctrine, politics, ambition, and many other factors, all of which could deviate from the parsimonious principle. That being said, the law of large numbers will eventually carry the day. It always does...

Julian
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