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Old 06-18-2007, 02:14 PM   #31
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If Monotheism was a later development in the Hebrew religion... perhaps during the exile(?)... what does that say about the Bible being the inspired word of God?
Why does every discussion around here turn into what some Christians believe, instead of actually taking the discussion for the merits they have?
Many Christians as well as many Jews, I imagine, see the Bible as being the inspired word of God. I'm also curious as to what these groups of people think about the idea of the original topic.
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Old 06-18-2007, 02:20 PM   #32
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I'm also curious as to what these groups of people think about the idea of the original topic.
Then why don't you go to an appropriate board and ask them, instead of fouling up this place with all this sludge?
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Old 06-18-2007, 02:26 PM   #33
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I'm also curious as to what these groups of people think about the idea of the original topic.
Then why don't you go to an appropriate board and ask them, instead of fouling up this place with all this sludge?
Seconded. This place probably is the [b]worst[/i] place to get opinions from Christians or Jews. While there are Christians and Jews here, they're hardly the representative group that you're (presumably) looking for.
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Old 06-18-2007, 02:31 PM   #34
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I don't think anyone here is claiming that the Hebrews who wrote the Torah (or at least the redactors) were henotheistic. The claim is that vestiges of henotheism survive in the text, even though it was edited to appear monotheistic.
If you claim that vestiges of henotheism survive in the Torah, how are you not arguing that those who wrote the Torah (not the redactors) were henotheistic?
In that sense, yes, several of us are saying that some (if not all) of the original writers were henotheists.
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Since you acknowledge that monotheism was a late development, and you know that the Torah was redacted from earlier sources (some much earlier), I imagine you find the claim at least plausible.
The confusion I think lies in how it has been worded. The Torah wasn't a monolithic entity - Genesis-Numbers were written before Deuteronomy. The texts themselves also need to be separated into J, E, and P before the exegesis in this case (since we're talking about what came before those books) can be brought out.
And, just to be clear, are you saying the J, E and P writers were all monotheists?
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Finally, for hundreds of years before the DSS the Israelites/Judaeans were monotheistic - how come much of these verses didn't get changed? How can you tell when gods are meant to be accounted as false gods who didn't exist and lesser gods subordinate to YHWH? And where does it explicitly say that these gods exist? None of the verses mention explicitly state such, so one is left to draw their own conclusions. There's no argument here.
You're right that there's no explicit statement that other gods exist, although some passages come damn close (consider Genesis 3:22, especially in light of the parallel phrase in 3:5; hell, consider 3:5 by itself). The several passages where Yahweh/El/elohim refer to "us", the widespread usage of the plural form "elohim", and the comments comparing Yahweh to other gods are all strange if he's supposed to be the only one that exists.

There is no way to know for sure whether some gods should be seen as false, or simply subordinate to Yahweh. But put yourself in the shoes of the writers. Say you're a monotheist arguing that other gods don't exist. How would you express that? Now suppose you're a henotheist trying to convince some polytheists that other gods are subordinate to Yahweh. How would you express that? The cited passages are what you would expect for the latter, but require some mental gymnastics to fit the first one.

As to the first question, several possibilities come to mind. Maybe the redactors were trying to maintain as much continuity as possible with prior traditions. Think about the way Christian evangelists converted Europeans and Native Americans, by teaching Christianity as an alternative interpretation of the native religion, with one of their gods equated to Yahweh, and others demoted to demons or angels. (It's a fair bet that the redactors did exactly that with Abraham's three visitors in chapter 18... ) Maybe the redactors were satisfied with removing only explicit references to other gods. Maybe they were trying to write a compromise document in which both monotheists and henotheists could see what they wanted. Or maybe it was just judged at some point that the scripture was too sacred to alter any further. (Consider the spelling and grammar mistakes that survive to this day.) Maybe some combination of all of the above happened... This, of course, is all speculation. The point is just that your first question, while a good one, does not shoot the theory down since there are several possibilities, all with precedent, which would account for the passages being left in henotheistic form.


Also consider that the story of Noah and the flood, which, although it does not contain any traces of henotheism AFAIK, is a clear example of a story in Genesis that was originally polytheistic, but was edited into a monotheistic one. Put another way, there's at least one original writer who was not a monotheist.
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Old 06-18-2007, 02:38 PM   #35
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I'm also curious as to what these groups of people think about the idea of the original topic.
Then why don't you go to an appropriate board and ask them, instead of fouling up this place with all this sludge?
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Seconded.
Sorry for fouling up this place with so much sludge. Have a nice day.
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Old 06-18-2007, 02:58 PM   #36
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And, just to be clear, are you saying the J, E and P writers were all monotheists?
I'm not saying anything. I'm asking you to explain. All you've done is post verses and expect everyone to automatically agree. If you're going to post verses, please make the proper distinctions, the proper explanations.

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You're right that there's no explicit statement that other gods exist, although some passages come damn close (consider Genesis 3:22, especially in light of the parallel phrase in 3:5; hell, consider 3:5 by itself).
I've considered them, and I've rejected them without some sort of explanation on your part.

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The several passages where Yahweh/El/elohim refer to "us", the widespread usage of the plural form "elohim", and the comments comparing Yahweh to other gods are all strange if he's supposed to be the only one that exists.
This is ignorant of the surrounding cultural context. I quote from a friend of mine:

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Yes, it is a plural that is often used as a singular. This makes most sense in the larger Near Eastern context, especially if we look to what was happening with divine epithets in Mesopotamia during this time, part of a trend that began around the Kassite period to universalize and aggregate divine personalities. We find the god Sin receive the epithet ili.sha.ili (gods of gods) at Ur. Sin-ili is also witnessed. This type of pluralizing gods' epithets is widely attested during the Neo-Babylonian period. Elohim as an epithet of Yahweh should be understood within this larger culture context. As such, it doesn't say something unique about theology in the Southern Levant, but that the Southern Levant's usage was part of a larger cultural-theological evolution in the Near East. See p. 977 in "King Nabonidus and the Neo-Babylonian Empire," Paul-Alain Beaulieu in Civilizations of the Ancient Near East, Sasson (ed)
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There is no way to know for sure whether some gods should be seen as false, or simply subordinate to Yahweh. But put yourself in the shoes of the writers. Say you're a monotheist arguing that other gods don't exist. How would you express that? Now suppose you're a henotheist trying to convince some polytheists that other gods are subordinate to Yahweh. How would you express that? The cited passages are what you would expect for the latter, but require some mental gymnastics to fit the first one.
This is still a mere claim until you can explain your reasoning.

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Also consider that the story of Noah and the flood, which, although it does not contain any traces of henotheism AFAIK, is a clear example of a story in Genesis that was originally polytheistic, but was edited into a monotheistic one. Put another way, there's at least one original writer who was not a monotheist.
But HOW!?!? You never explain why you think this way. I cannot read your mind, sir.
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Old 06-18-2007, 03:11 PM   #37
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Spinoza (TTP, chap. 13) on El and its plural:
Thus El, or Eloah, signifies powerful, as is well known, and only applies to God in respect to His supremacy, as when we call Paul an apostle; the faculties of his power are set forth in an accompanying adjective, as El, great, awful, just, merciful, &c., or else all are understood at once by the use of El in the plural number, with a singular signification, an expression frequently adopted in Scripture.
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Old 06-18-2007, 07:20 PM   #38
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Wrong Chris. Frequently it is claimed that other gods exist in the Torah. Read all the posts in this thread again. Monotheism was a later development in the Hebrew religion.
I read the posts in this thread. Yes, I am aware that monotheism is a later development. I don't find any of the posts convincing that the Hebrews who wrote the Torah were either polytheistic, as it is ignorantly claimed here, or more accurately, henotheistic. Please, if you'd like to make a coherent argument supporting your exegesis on the passages, please be my guest, but as it stands, all I see are verses with no explanation and the mere assumption that the posters must be right. Sounds suspiciously like apologetics to me.
By monotheistic, I mean that they believed in other Gods. I have no doubt that they were (usually) monolatrous, in that they worshipped just YHWH.

Over and over again in the Torah there are references to other Gods. The references (with a couple of exceptions) do not state that they were false gods, only that they were gods that Hebrews did not know; that is, gods of other peoples. Solomon's remark about the building of the temple is instructive and convincing.

If I'm mis-reading your argument, let me know.
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Old 06-18-2007, 08:41 PM   #39
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If I'm mis-reading your argument, let me know.
I'm not making an argument. I'm asking you to make your argument. I don't trust your word - I need you to carefully explicate your position with precise exegesis.
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Old 06-19-2007, 02:26 AM   #40
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If I'm mis-reading your argument, let me know.
I'm not making an argument. I'm asking you to make your argument. I don't trust your word - I need you to carefully explicate your position with precise exegesis.
I thought I had. King Solomon mentions other gods in 2 Chronicles. See the quote in my earlier post. YHWH refers to other gods -- frequently. If they didn't believe in other gods, why did they keep referring to them? Over and over again, it is stated: 'I AM YHWH, your God', not 'I am God', as a monotheistic culture would. Why is this not evidence of polytheism????
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