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Old 01-28-2013, 09:42 PM   #331
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Hi Roger,

You have brought great observations, as always! The common attribution of authorship of Hebrews and 1 Clement was noted by Origen.

14. But who wrote the epistle, in truth, God only knows. The statement of some who have gone before us is that Clement, bishop of the Romans, wrote the epistle. Origen, according to Eusebius, EH 4.25.14

The author of 1 Clement and Hebrews both apparently wrote from a large city, and used the Septuagint version of the Jewish Scriptures.

But there is still something a bit different about Hebrews that does not fit.

Let us consider that the author was invoking Joshua Revidcus in which an identity of Jesus(Iesous) Christ with the Joshua's of the Septuagint, (Joshua son of Nun and Joshua the son of Jehozadak) is established.
Hi Jake,

Yes, that is an interesting quote from Origen. And he presents the attribution of Hebrews to Clement as something that went back further. It is “the statement of some who have gone before us.” But he adds that “others say that it was Luke, he who wrote the Gospel and the Acts.” I suspect that both attributions may be correct. Namely, that Clement not only wrote Hebrews but was also the “Luke” who wrote the original gLuke and Acts. P.L. Couchoud has some interesting pages on this possibility in his “The Creation of Christ.”

But regarding Joshua: I don’t see him playing a prominent role in Hebrews. It is Moses, Aaron and Levi who are explicitly connected with the tabernacle ministry. And Joshua’s name isn’t even mentioned in chapter 11 of Hebrews when it gets to the Jericho battle: “By faith the walls of Jericho fell after being circled for seven days” (Heb. 11:30). Moses, Rahab, Gideon, Barak, Samson, Jephthah, David and Samuel receive honorary mention in chapter 11, but not Joshua.

Then too, the “outside the camp” phrase you mention is part of a chapter (13 ) which many scholars think was a later addition to the epistle. It is thought the chapter was added to try to bring a Pauline-style ending to it.

But I will try to keep an open mind.
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Old 01-28-2013, 10:15 PM   #332
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No, I think that the author of 1 Clement was probably wise to limit his borrowing from 1 Corinthians to its admonition against schism.
If we are going to talk about 1 Clement the place to start is ask - is the author the same as he who wrote 2 Clement. I think he was and that the differences in style and character are a result of an orthodox interest in transforming 1 Clement.
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Old 01-28-2013, 10:21 PM   #333
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Hebrews is clearly not Pauline
But why does Clement of Alexandria think so? You can't find a more sophisticated early Christian writer. What's up with that?
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Old 01-28-2013, 10:40 PM   #334
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The same situation shows up with respect to Ignatius. This offers a third puzzle. Irenaeus cites the material from to the Romans but does not name the author. Another author (Hippolytus?) subsequent to Irenaeus 'fixed' the Ignatian corpus (= the long Greek text). So the question again remains - what was limiting Irenaeus? Was it that his understanding of orthodoxy was still 'heretical' by later standards? Yes almost certainly. But what else? It's like the superhero stories. What couldn't he do? What was his kryptonite? What was the historical reality in contemporary Christianity he couldn't overcome, he couldn't wipe away.
I think the Ignatians were originally letters of Peregrinus. Irenaeus just refers to him as “one of ours” because Peregrinus’ subsequent apostasy from Christianity was an embarrassment. At some point between the time of Irenaeus and that of Origen the letters were transformed into letters of Ignatius. If you are interested, I have posted a fuller exposition of this theory on Neil Godfrey’s Vridar blog (See series with title: “The Letters Supposedly Written by Ignatius of Antioch”).
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Old 01-28-2013, 11:28 PM   #335
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And I have shown that it does. I showed it in the Appendix which Jake urged me to post here, and which clearly neither he nor anyone else has actually read. (So what's the point of bothering?) If he had, he would not have made that "niggling" posting about the writer referring to the Sinai tabernacle and not the ongoing Temple cult, as though it signified anything. A complaint such as I made in response to that posting was not ad hominem. It was a legitimate complaint that Jake's (and others') responses here are usually shallow, show no real knowledge of the document in question, and refuse to read my writings on the subject, even when they are handed to them on a platter.

The reason why he and others here, along with Robert Price, can be considered wrong about this question is to be found in the arguments I put forward in that Appendix. Here is a sample (I've bolded the passages which make my point directly):



Until Jake (or maryhelena, or anyone else) actually engages with my arguments, rather than simply having recourse to accusations that my complaints about their lack of doing so are ad hominem, the situation will unfortunately continue. And I am still awaiting Jake's substantive rebuttal to my "hair-splitting" response to Ted, as well as any counter-argument he wishes to make to my Appendix on Hebrews which he pleaded with me to post and then has ignored. Clearly, he is not capable of such responses, but prefers instead to argue over whether I am "shrill" or not. No scholarship is needed for that, apparently.

Earl Doherty

Earl

Your position has JC crucified in a sub-lunar sphere and offering the value of that sacrifice, the blood, in the heavenly tabernacle.
Resulting in the setting up of a New Covenant; the Old Law Covenant with it’s literal sacrifices becoming obsolete.

Since a sub-lunar crucifixion can have no dating structure - the time period between this crucifixion and the destruction of the Jerusalem temple is undefined. Thus, the Jerusalem temple would still be functioning simultaneously with the new heavenly, spiritual, New Covenant. In other words, from that perspective, the Jerusalem temple is functioning in an illegitimate manner. It’s sacrifices no longer have any value. There is a period of time from when the Jerusalem temple sacrifices became valueless and that temple is destroyed. (70 c.e.) A period of time when that Jerusalem temple functioned illegitimately.

However, the text makes no mention of the Jerusalem temple. It only makes reference to the tabernacle that Moses built.

The question then arises as to whether there was a historical time period in which that Jerusalem temple could be viewed as being illegitimate. Thereby allowing ideas of a heavenly temple and a heavenly sacrifice to develop.

(my above post suggests that this was from 37 b.c.)

Hebrews 8.4 is not referencing the Jerusalem temple. It is using the tabernacle of Moses as a parallel with the heavenly tabernacle. Why? For the parallel that the writer of Hebrews wants to make - that Jesus would not be a priest if he was on earth - that required that a tabernacle, a legitimate sanctuary be paralleled. (Since the Jerusalem temple, from a Hasmonean perspective, could be viewed as illegitimate.)

And why could Jesus not be a priest if he was on earth? If the Jesus of Hebrews was crucified on earth then he could not be a priest and offer his blood as a sacrifice. Why? Simple, human blood is not an acceptable sacrifice under the Law. It has no value. The Hebrews Jesus could not be a priest on earth. It is only in a spiritual context, where a symbolic blood offering is made, that such a ‘blood’ sacrifice can have a spiritual, an intellectual, a heavenly, salvation value.

What this is suggesting is that in the NT we are dealing with two Jesus stories. The Hebrews story of Jesus as a high priest offering a blood sacrifice, an offering, in a heavenly tabernacle, that is able to have a salvation value. The Jesus of the gospel story undergoes a crucifixion, an earthly crucifixion, that is valueless. Or, as Dawkins once wrote: “Among all the ideas ever to occur to a nasty human mind (Paul’s of course), the Christian “atonement” would win a prize for pointless futility as well as moral depravity”.

Earl, the Jesus of the gospel story and the Jesus of Hebrews are not synonymous entities. These two NT figures serve vastly different purposes. They function in two different contexts - and need to be interpreted within their specific contexts.

If the Jesus of Hebrews was on earth he would not be a priest offering a sacrifice at the illegitimate Jerusalem temple. If the Jesus of Hebrews was on earth he would not be offering a sacrifice at any temple - not even the tabernacle of Moses. The sacrifice of human blood is an abomination.

Hebrews 8.4 is not referencing the gospel Jesus story. That gospel story has to be interpreted within its own context. Hebrews 8.4 is not a 'smoking gun' against the JC of the historicists. Only history has the potential for that - not otherworldly philosophizing...
Well, glory be! We finally have someone willing to admit that, as far as the writer of Hebrews is concerned, there was no Jesus on earth!

I fully agree that Hebrews does not reference the gospel story. (I am assuming that your admission is not limited to 8:4, but the entire epistle.) It then becomes encumbent to figure out where the Gospel story came from, and that is something I have provided an answer for. For the ministry dimension, it essentially came from the Q ethos as representative of a preaching movement in the first century. For the dying and rising dimension, it probably came from the influence of, or even syncretism with, the Christ cult, though I have allowed the possibility (and only that) that it was simply part of the allegory Mark created without connection to the Christ cult of Paul.

But none of that demonstrates in any way that Paul's cult and that of the epistles in general was based on an historical Jesus or any other particular historical figure. Quite the contrary, the epistles constantly tell us that the figure of Christ the Son and what he did was derived from scripture, and the primary characterization of this Christ and Son was based on Greek and Jewish Logos/Wisdom philosophy and soteriology. There is virtually zero indication that he was inspired by any historical tradition. Just because crucifixion was a cultural characteristic says nothing about the derivation of Paul's Christ.

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However, the text makes no mention of the Jerusalem temple. It only makes reference to the tabernacle that Moses built.
I have just reproduced for Jake that section from my Appendix which demonstrates that it does refer to the Jerusalem temple (the bolded parts). It refers to the still-existing sacrificial cult which is on its way to disappearing. That is a reference to the Jerusalem temple! I was right that neither you nor Jake even read the thing.

Then shortly afterward, you narrow that down to Hebrews 8:4, claiming that this verse does not reference the Jerusalem temple. Of course it does. It is a reference to the ongoing practice of the priests offering sacrifices on earth, in contrast to Jesus who had to perform his in heaven. That is probably why the writer chose to use the imperfect tenses rather than the aorist, because the cult is still ongoing. Your convoluted business about not having an identifiable time frame for the occurrence of Jesus' sacrifice in heaven does not render the writer's intention to be saying that the earthly priests were doing their sacrifices at the same time as Jesus' act in heaven. There is no sign of any such thing anywhere in the text, and what would be the point of trying to slip in such a thing so obscurely in that solitary verse?

No, Hebrews 8:4 is not a smoking gun against the historicity per se of the Gospel story. It is a smoking gun in favor of no HJ in the minds of a vast amount of Christian literature lying outside the Gospels and seeming to have no connection with them.

Earl Doherty
Earl, keep focus here with what I write. It is Heb.8.4. that is under discussion. This is what I wrote:

[T2]If the Jesus of Hebrews was on earth he would not be a priest offering a sacrifice at the illegitimate Jerusalem temple. If the Jesus of Hebrews was on earth he would not be offering a sacrifice at any temple - not even the tabernacle of Moses. The sacrifice of human blood is an abomination.[/T2]

That’s it. That is all that verse is saying. If the Hebrews Jesus, 8.4, was on earth he would not be a priest offering gifts under the Law. Why? I gave a suggestion above regarding the abomination a human sacrifice would be. Therefore, this verse, (8.4) offers nothing for the JC historicist/ahistoricist debate. Nothing. This verse is not, as you wrote in your post on Vridar,

“.... the sound and smoke from this ‘smoking gun’ has been so obscuring that it has prevented the entire history of New Testament scholarship from reading the verse in any logical fashion.... And from hearing its implications as a bell tolling for the historical Jesus.” “....the contrafactual nature of “if he had been on earth” makes it a denial that he had been on earth.” “I have called Hebrews 8:4 a “time bomb.”

https://vridar.wordpress.com/2012/06...thicism-pt-16/

A heavenly high priest, Jesus, offering his blood as a salvation value, cannot, logically, be historicized as a gospel JC offering a flesh and blood no value human sacrifice in real time. There is, likewise, no logic in working from a real time human Jesus offering the blood of a non value human sacrifice in a heavenly temple. Logic cannot be sidelined by appeals to magic tricks. Turning a non-value into a value is the stuff of storytelling not reality. Putting the magic tricks aside - what is left is that we are dealing with two very different contexts. Two different contexts that are able to uphold different concepts of value. One context upholds human life as a value. The other upholds death as a value. One context is physical reality. The other context is intellectual reality, heavenly reality. (a reality where the death of ideas produces new, 'salvation', ideas...)

Earl, in Hebrews and the Pauline epistles we are dealing with an attempt to explain a heavenly, intellectual, reality. This unseen intellectual reality is understood to have parallels to our physical reality. The earthly, material, tabernacle and the heavenly tabernacle are paralleled. However, parallels are limited; while reflections can be observed, the entities being viewed for parallels still retain their specific identifications, their core identities. What is of value in one entity, one context, need not have a corresponding value within the other entity. As in Hebrews 8.4.. If Jesus was on earth he would not be a priest under the Law. His priestly function, offering a symbolic, a spiritual ‘blood’ offering, only has value within a heavenly, an intellectual, context.

Questions regarding whether or not the Hebrews Jesus figure came to earth are questions for philosophy (or theology) not history. Historical questions regarding the NT Jesus figure are focused on the gospel Jesus story.

Earl, as far as I can see, Hebrews only once makes reference to Jerusalem - and that reference is to the heavenly Jerusalem. So - don’t read the physical Jerusalem temple into Hebrews 8.4! Yes, interesting of course, as to why the writer of Hebrews did not reference the Jerusalem temple in his Heb.8.4. parallel - but he did not - and so......we have no justification for reading into that verse what the writer did not put there...

[T2]Hebrews 12:22

But you have come to Mount Zion, to the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem. You have come to thousands upon thousands of angels in joyful assembly,[/T2]

Quote:
Earl: It then becomes encumbent to figure out where the Gospel story came from, and that is something I have provided an answer for. For the ministry dimension, it essentially came from the Q ethos as representative of a preaching movement in the first century. For the dying and rising dimension, it probably came from the influence of, or even syncretism with, the Christ cult, though I have allowed the possibility (and only that) that it was simply part of the allegory Mark created without connection to the Christ cult of Paul.
Your answer, Earl, is pure speculation. If it’s answers to the questions raised by the gospel JC story that we seek - it’s not speculation that will help us. That story makes a historical claim. A Jewish messiah figure was executed via Roman sanction. That execution is the foundation upon which all else is built. And no, an interpretation of Heb.8.4 (or the Pauline epistles) will not help in seeking answers to the gospel story.

Yes, Earl, there is no historical gospel JC, of whatever variant. But that position does not negate the relevance of history to the creation of that figurative, literary, mythological, gospel figure. And if as you once wrote, and which quote I have many times referenced, those gospel writers used elements of several historical figures in the creation of their gospel JC figure - then Earl, if we are seeking early christian origins - we have a hook, we have a historical hook by which to grab on to in that search for early christian origins. As much as the gospel writers have turned to the OT and mythological elements in the creation of their JC figure - so too have they turned to historical figures in Jewish history. If, through that gospel story, we can see reflections of historical figures - then Earl, we can open up the road forward in a search for early christian origins. Philosophizing with Hebrews or Paul is the cherry on the cake - but, Earl, we can't enjoy that cherry until we have the cake to support it...

Quote:
"I can well acknowledge that elements of several representative, historical figures fed into the myth of the Gospel Jesus, since even mythical characters can only be portrayed in terms of human personalities, especially ones from their own time that are familiar and pertinent to the writers of the myths."

http://jesuspuzzle.humanists.net/rfset5.htm#Mary
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Old 01-29-2013, 05:30 AM   #336
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Your answer, Earl, is pure speculation. If it’s answers to the questions raised by the gospel JC story that we seek - it’s not speculation that will help us. That story makes a historical claim. A Jewish messiah figure was executed via Roman sanction. That execution is the foundation upon which all else is built. And no, an interpretation of Heb.8.4 (or the Pauline epistles) will not help in seeking answers to the gospel story...
The foundation of Christianity is not based on the execution of any historical figure. Even the Church admitted their Jesus was the Son of a Ghost.

The foundation of Christianity is based primarily on an historical Event---- The Fall of the Jewish Temple c 70 CE.

Using Jewish Scriptures or similar sources, anonymous stories to explain the Fall of the Temple were invented in the 2nd century.

It can be easily seen that the anonymous stories of Jesus were invented in the 2nd century because that is when the very stories IMPACTED Non-Apologetic writers and many 2nd century apologetic writers show that the nature of Jesus' existence was NOT established.
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Old 01-31-2013, 09:31 AM   #337
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Roger, I can only admire those who can find an entire landscape in a document which is so obscurely to be seen on the surface that it is virtually undetectable. Your phrase about a forger not wanting “to tip his hand” simply makes no sense to me. If someone has an agenda to put forward in a forged writing, why would he make it so hidden from view? Why indeed would any forger adopt the strategy of disguising desired ideas in a supposedly earlier document from a time when the agenda situation was not current? Why, for example, attempt to get across an argument for Roman Church hegemony by forging a document like 1 Clement and pretend it came from a time before Roman hegemony was an issue, thus forcing him not to “tip his hand” that this is what his forged document was about? Why not forge a document which pretends to be more recent, of more current relevance, which can openly present its agenda? And how could any forger be so proficient that he would indeed not “tip his hand” and reveal more clearly what he was up to?

When the forger produced his document, did he hold seminars for readers to attend so that they could detect that agenda and understand how it was to be interpreted? How could he seriously have thought that his efforts would achieve their goal and create the effect on thinking that he hoped for? There isn’t a breath of a hint of Simon in Hebrews. Even when you attempt to point it out I am unable to see it, beyond the odd coincidence of the odd word one might ambiguously link to someone like Marcion. And show me corroborative evidence of there existing forgers and forgeries capable of adopting this kind of deliberate and ultra-subtle approach to promoting an agenda. All one has to look at is the obvious forgeries like the Testimonium Flavianum. “He was the Christ!” “He rose on the third day according to what the prophets foretold!” This is subtlety? This is “not tipping one’s hand”?

Not only is there not a hint of Simon, there is not even a hint of “heresy.” There is nothing, not a single verse, in Hebrews that conveys the idea that the writer is dealing with opposing, let alone heretical, viewpoints regarding soteriology rivalling his own. He is urging his readers to stand fast, not to abandon their faith; but he is not urging them to hold to “correct” faith, their own revealed and received faith, as opposed to adopting some other unapproved and erroneous doctrine. This is beyond subtlety, it is alleging a meaning which is non-existent. Even Heb. 13:9, which raises the basic thought of not being “carried away by strange teachings...” pretty well indicates what is being referred to: “…for it is good for our hearts to be strengthened by grace, not by ceremonial foods, which are of no value to those who eat them.” Not even here can the forger see fit to make even the barest allusion to some kind of gnostic or Simonian doctrine he is allegedly seeking to challenge and discredit.

But I am obviously not able to change the minds of a whole swath of “radical” exegetes who insist on creating an entire range of allegedly later second century documents masquerading as something that is barely recognizable, if at all. And especially when it is so unnecessary in the context of mythicism. These are strange byways into which so many have ventured.

Earl Doherty
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Old 01-31-2013, 10:18 AM   #338
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.....Not only is there not a hint of Simon, there is not even a hint of “heresy.” There is nothing, not a single verse, in Hebrews that conveys the idea that the writer is dealing with opposing, let alone heretical, viewpoints regarding soteriology rivalling his own. He is urging his readers to stand fast, not to abandon their faith; but he is not urging them to hold to “correct” faith, their own revealed and received faith, as opposed to adopting some other unapproved and erroneous doctrine. This is beyond subtlety, it is alleging a meaning which is non-existent. Even Heb. 13:9, which raises the basic thought of not being “carried away by strange teachings...” pretty well indicates what is being referred to: “…for it is good for our hearts to be strengthened by grace, not by ceremonial foods, which are of no value to those who eat them.” Not even here can the forger see fit to make even the barest allusion to some kind of gnostic or Simonian doctrine he is allegedly seeking to challenge and discredit....
You appear to be in denial mode. Every passage in Hebrews which contradict you are twisted. There is a hint in Hebrews that it was composed after there were heresies. There are hints that Hebrews was a late composition.

Hebrews 13:9 KJV
Quote:
..Be not carried about with divers and strange doctrines. For it is a good thing that the heart be established with grace; not with meats, which have not profited them that have been occupied therein .
The author was supposedly writing to the Hebrews with salutations from the Church of Rome.

Hebrews 13:24 KJV
Quote:
Salute all them that have the rule over you, and all the saints. They of Italy salute you.
The Church of Rome was already established before Epistle Hebrews was composed.

Doherty you are 100% wrong about Hebrews.

Hebrews is about a character called Jesus the Son of God that came in the Flesh, and was crucified and the Epistle was composed AFTER the words of the Son of God were composed in the Last Days and AFTER heresies were known.
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Old 02-01-2013, 08:36 AM   #339
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
.....Not only is there not a hint of Simon, there is not even a hint of “heresy.” There is nothing, not a single verse, in Hebrews that conveys the idea that the writer is dealing with opposing, let alone heretical, viewpoints regarding soteriology rivalling his own. He is urging his readers to stand fast, not to abandon their faith; but he is not urging them to hold to “correct” faith, their own revealed and received faith, as opposed to adopting some other unapproved and erroneous doctrine. This is beyond subtlety, it is alleging a meaning which is non-existent. Even Heb. 13:9, which raises the basic thought of not being “carried away by strange teachings...” pretty well indicates what is being referred to: “…for it is good for our hearts to be strengthened by grace, not by ceremonial foods, which are of no value to those who eat them.” Not even here can the forger see fit to make even the barest allusion to some kind of gnostic or Simonian doctrine he is allegedly seeking to challenge and discredit....
You appear to be in denial mode. Every passage in Hebrews which contradict you are twisted. There is a hint in Hebrews that it was composed after there were heresies. There are hints that Hebrews was a late composition.

Hebrews 13:9 KJV
Quote:
..Be not carried about with divers and strange doctrines. For it is a good thing that the heart be established with grace; not with meats, which have not profited them that have been occupied therein .
I just dealt with that passage right in the posting you've just quoted! Do you not read or understand anything?

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa
The author was supposedly writing to the Hebrews with salutations from the Church of Rome.

Hebrews 13:24 KJV
Quote:
Salute all them that have the rule over you, and all the saints. They of Italy salute you.
The Church of Rome was already established before Epistle Hebrews was composed.
No, the Church of Rome was already established before the postscipt containing that line was written and added to the original letter. Do you not read or understand anything that I've posted?

For the benefit of others, let me reiterate a constant complaint. When you present an argument (especially a repeated one) after a counter to that argument has been supplied, common sense debate rules require that you address that counter-argument in the process of (re)presenting your own. Of course, if one's mind is so set in cement that one can't even recognize or acknowledge that a counter-argument has been made, by rights you shouldn't be here.

Quote:
Doherty you are 100% wrong about Hebrews.

Hebrews is about a character called Jesus the Son of God that came in the Flesh, and was crucified and the Epistle was composed AFTER the words of the Son of God were composed in the Last Days and AFTER heresies were known.
Apparently aa has also overlooked the argument that if Hebrews was composed after the middle of the second century when the idea that the End was imminent was virtually dead in Christian circles, and if the topic was discussed at all it was to try to explain why the End had been delayed and such promises were so long in coming (as in 2 Peter), why does it show no sign of such a problem but declares that "the last days" are here (as in gMark in contrast to later Gospels which start to hedge on apocalyptic expectations)? This is yet another reason why we need to date Hebrews early and why a late 2nd century dating is bankrupt.

And just where do we find in the later heresiologists any conviction or preaching that they are living in the last days?

Not that I expect any of this to penetrate aa's lead-lined armor.

Earl Doherty
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Old 02-01-2013, 10:10 AM   #340
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Originally Posted by aa5874
....You appear to be in denial mode. Every passage in Hebrews which contradict you are twisted. There is a hint in Hebrews that it was composed after there were heresies. There are hints that Hebrews was a late composition.

Hebrews 13:9 KJV
Quote:
..Be not carried about with divers and strange doctrines. For it is a good thing that the heart be established with grace; not with meats, which have not profited them that have been occupied therein .
Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
I just dealt with that passage right in the posting you've just quoted! Do you not read or understand anything?
Your reply is not a counter-argument.

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa
The author was supposedly writing to the Hebrews with salutations from the Church of Rome.

Hebrews 13:24 KJV
Quote:
Salute all them that have the rule over you, and all the saints. They of Italy salute you.
The Church of Rome was already established before Epistle Hebrews was composed.
Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
No, the Church of Rome was already established before the postscipt containing that line was written and added to the original letter. Do you not read or understand anything that I've posted?
Again, you have NOT presented any original Epistle of Hebrews. This is not Sunday School. You ought to know that you cannot present your imagination as evidence.

Those days are done--Finished.

I am dealing with the actual contents of Hebrews NOT Doherty's imagination.
Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
...For the benefit of others, let me reiterate a constant complaint. When you present an argument (especially a repeated one) after a counter to that argument has been supplied, common sense debate rules require that you address that counter-argument in the process of (re)presenting your own. Of course, if one's mind is so set in cement that one can't even recognize or acknowledge that a counter-argument has been made, by rights you shouldn't be here.
You do not present counter arguments when you respond to my posts but threaten to put me on ignore whenever I expose your errors.

You are totally incapable of countering my arguments. It just cannot be done based on the existing evidence from antiquity.

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874
Doherty you are 100% wrong about Hebrews.

Hebrews is about a character called Jesus the Son of God that came in the Flesh, and was crucified and the Epistle was composed AFTER the words of the Son of God were composed in the Last Days and AFTER heresies were known.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Doherty
Apparently aa has also overlooked the argument that if Hebrews was composed after the middle of the second century when the idea that the End was imminent was virtually dead in Christian circles, and if the topic was discussed at all it was to try to explain why the End had been delayed and such promises were so long in coming (as in 2 Peter), why does it show no sign of such a problem but declares that "the last days" are here (as in gMark in contrast to later Gospels which start to hedge on apocalyptic expectations)? This is yet another reason why we need to date Hebrews early and why a late 2nd century dating is bankrupt.
And just where do we find in the later heresiologists any conviction or preaching that they are living in the last days?
You expose your bankruptcy of the NT Canon. Christian always believe mankind is in the Last Days. Jesus is always coming soon.

You seem completely unaware that it is claimed Jesus would come like a Thief in the Night.

1 Thessalonians 5:2 KJV
Quote:
For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night.
This is Justin writing in the mid 2nd century.
First Apology LII
Quote:
....For the prophets have proclaimed two advents of His: the one, that which is already past, when He came as a dishonoured and suffering Man; but the second, when, according to prophecy, He shall come from heaven with glory, accompanied by His angelic host, when also He shall raise the bodies of all men who have lived, and shall clothe those of the worthy with immortality, and shall send those of the wicked, endued with eternal sensibility, into everlasting fire with the wicked devils.
Even 1800 YEARS LATER Christians today still claim we are living in the Last Days. Christians are anxiously waiting for the day when those who did NOT believe in their Jesus get burn forever.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
...Not that I expect any of this to penetrate aa's lead-lined armor.

Earl Doherty
I am just an ordinary poster and I have a LEAD-LINED ARMOR. How come you don't have one??
aa5874 is offline  
 

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