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Old 08-02-2005, 08:11 PM   #31
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One general point: the question about women's role in Christian worship in the early church is probably separate from the question of women's head covering in the early church.
Andrew, I do agree that these are separate issues but, once again in these passages we see women being relegated to second class status in the church.

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There were probably women who had some sort of authority position in the church but who wore veils, and women without any authority position who sought to demonstrate their freedom in Christ by not wearing veils. (See 'On the Veiling of Virgins' by Tertullian who disapproved of this sort of freedom.)
That's exactly my point. Other texts indicate that there were women in positions of authority in the early church, this supported by a non-Christian source and Christian ones ( I do consider those early gnostics as Christians).

But I do have to agree with something said earlier in this discussion that this whole chapter looks like what would result from a blind person cutting and pasting document sections in Word. These passages seems very difficult to read. Verse 10 seems to be completely out of place and incomprehensible.

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9.Neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man.
10. For this cause ought the woman to have power on [her] head because of the angels.
I have no idea what the "this" refers to, and the words "power on [her] head" are strange here, and it is due to angels ? (wtf?). This part seems like there should be a sentence preceeding it that the "this" refers to and introduces something about power and angels. I assume that by this time Enoch's horny angels have all been locked up, bound and punished (parhaps not), so it seems strange. (maybe Paul is afrraid of other angels being tempted, it's difficult to tell just what this is supposed to mean).

But, I note that as a previous poster noted and referenced, that you could remove 3-16 or 17 and it reads better. Further down, 22-29 seems out of place, especially considering what 30 says.(does 30 seem better proceeding 21 or 22 or 29 ?) Consider that 33 seems to refer to 21. At this point I'm just thinking out loud, but it certainly seems to me to be re-arranged and/or perhaps badly translated. Perhaps because of this wierd arrangement the translator was equally confused.

It might be interesting to try some different re-constructions to see how they come out. I'm not very strong in greek either, but if the english translation is accurate, these verses seem somehow to be out of proper sequence.

Very interesting post about ancient physiology. With this in mind, maybe it would help with a reconstruction.
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Old 08-03-2005, 09:09 AM   #32
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Originally Posted by manimal2878
By wriggling I mean trying to interpret it to mean something it does not. It means women are expected to wear head coverings in church. There is no other way to read that passage. If you were to read it plainly you can't deny that it says women should wear headcoverings.

Thus if you agree to this meaning, which is the only one possible, then you have to be able to tell me why christians don't have to wear headcoverings anymore.

There are two possible answers unless you try to wriggle out of the meaning of the passage.

1. I choose not to follow that for whatever reason...

To which I then ask then why can't anyone choose not to follow other bible parts for the same reasons.

2. You could point to scripture chronologically revealed in the bible after this which renounces what Paul says
Hello mammal2878! Thanks for your reply!

I would challenge your definition of "wriggling". For one thing, there is the question of whether or not a prohibition given in the Bible is meant to be universal or only local. Perfect examples abound in the Book of Leviticus. Instructions on what to eat, when to have sex, whom to have sex with, what to wear, and the like, were all given to the Israelites as instructions with a specific local and temporary purpose: to help them understand the Holiness of God. We no longer need that, although some of them might be helpful as a reminder! Therefore, we can conclude that while the text of Leviticus clearly states without equivocation that the children of God should not wear clothes with more than one fabric n them, that this is intended as a local and not a universal prohibition. This is not wriggling, it is defining more clearly. This is but one example of how the "clear meaning" of a verse can be a little less clear and a little more through a glass darkly.

Yes, I am choosing the first option. My reason for choosing not to enforce that prohibition is that I believe it was either culturally encapsulated to the point where it would be meaningless to follow it anymore, or it was stipulated for reasons which no longer apply (or both). Regarding what sort of consequences this commits me to, is outside the scope of this thread. I direct you to a thread which I have begun specifically to address this issue:

http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.p...50#post2597450

I look forward to discussing this with you and others!
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Old 08-03-2005, 01:02 PM   #33
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Originally Posted by TrueMyth
Perfect examples abound in the Book of Leviticus. Instructions on what to eat, when to have sex, whom to have sex with, what to wear, and the like, were all given to the Israelites as instructions with a specific local and temporary purpose: to help them understand the Holiness of God. Therefore, we can conclude that while the text of Leviticus clearly states without equivocation that the children of God should not wear clothes with more than one fabric n them, that this is intended as a local and not a universal prohibition.
It is only clearly meant for those people and that time because we have the book of Hebrews which tells us why those laws have been nullified. Unfortunately Paul was a teacher of the new law and his words on every other subject are considered universal and applicable today and his teaching were not rebuked by later scripture as the old testamnet was.


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Originally Posted by TrueMyth
Yes, I am choosing the first option. My reason for choosing not to enforce that prohibition is that I believe it was either culturally encapsulated to the point where it would be meaningless to follow it anymore, or it was stipulated for reasons which no longer apply (or both). Regarding what sort of consequences this commits me to, is outside the scope of this thread. I direct you to a thread which I have begun specifically to address this issue:

http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.p...50#post2597450

I look forward to discussing this with you and others!
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Old 08-03-2005, 01:34 PM   #34
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Originally Posted by manimal2878
It is only clearly meant for those people and that time because we have the book of Hebrews which tells us why those laws have been nullified. Unfortunately Paul was a teacher of the new law and his words on every other subject are considered universal and applicable today and his teaching were not rebuked by later scripture as the old testamnet was.
Very true. This, however, does not make Paul's words necessarily universal and infallible, but more difficult to contradict. There are other ways of determining that commands are local besides later revelation (I listed five in an earlier post)

And I will give your mom a call and set a plate of cookies out for you
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Old 08-03-2005, 07:09 PM   #35
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Awesome, chocolate chip?

Well you said clearly related to that culture, the words of Paul would not be clearly related to that culture only, but yes could be voided by the 5 reasons you said.
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Old 08-04-2005, 12:15 PM   #36
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Originally Posted by Fortuna
That's exactly my point. Other texts indicate that there were women in positions of authority in the early church, this supported by a non-Christian source and Christian ones ( I do consider those early gnostics as Christians).
It is not clear how frequently Gnostic Christians actually did give women positions of authority.

a/ The fact that a 2nd century group used Mary Magdalene as an alleged source for an alternative tradition to the mainstream church doesn't necessarily mean that contemporary (ie 2nd century) women occupied prominent roles in that group.

b/ Orthodox opponents of Gnosticism may have exaggerated the role of Women in Gnosticism as part of their polemic against the gnostics.

c/ Some gnostic groups had strongly anti-women attitudes see for example the final saying in the Gospel of Thomas.

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Old 09-20-2005, 01:06 PM   #37
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Originally Posted by neilgodfrey
The usual explanation that Paul is arguing for the wearing of a veil is contradicted within the same passage (1 Cor 11:2-16) that says a woman's hair itself is given her as a covering.
Although I'm part of a fundamentalist church where the women do wear a covering such as a hat, I always thought hair WAS the covering Paul was talking about. Nobody in church ever agreed with me so I'm glad I found someone! :thumbs:

1 Corinthians 11:15
but if a woman has long hair, it is a glory to her? For her hair is given to her for a covering. NASB

So what I always understood from this text was that Paul was saying that women must have long hair and men should keep their hair short.


p.s Since this is my first post, let me introduce myself. My name is Liviu, a 23 year-old guy. I've been raised in a baptist fundamentalist church and am "born-again", but I have doubted christianity for years. Since people from church generally never question anything, my questions have become a nuisance for leaders and peers alike. I've come to the conclusion that the phrase "ignorance is bliss" is true, and sometimes wish I was ignorant. But since I'm not, I seek answers to nagging questions I've long suspected don't have a satisfactory answer. I've read through some threads and am happy to find such knowledgeable people on this form! :notworthy
I'm looking forward to discuss issues and learn from you guys.
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Old 09-20-2005, 01:14 PM   #38
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Welcome liviu. Hope you enjoy your time here.

Feel free to drop by the Lounge and introduce yourself to the people who don't hang out in BCH.
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Old 09-23-2005, 08:02 PM   #39
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I came across another paper on this topic: Amorous Archons

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A preoccupation with the textual minutiae of Scripture may stem from either a strict belief in verbal inspiration or simply the scholarly love of trivia, but in any case few Bible students can resist a good exegetical puzzle. One of the most intriguing of such puzzles is Paul’s command for women to remain veiled while prophesying "because of the angels" (1 Corinthians 11:10). I would like to consider the advantages of what I believe to be a new explanation of Paul’s cryptic sanction. To anticipate, I believe that the best guess is that Paul is referring to a myth according to which the naked (unveiled) Eve was taken from her husband for whom she was created and raped by lustful angels in the Garden of Eden, a myth attested by its later docetizing reinterpretation in the Nag Hammadi texts The Hypostasis of the Archons and On the Origin of the World.

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It seems quite likely that Paul knew the more commonly attested version in which Eve was sexually seduced by Satan. I refer to 2 Corinthians 11:2-3, "I feel a divine jealousy for you, for I betrothed you to Christ to present you as a pure bride to her one husband. But I am afraid that as the serpent deceived Eve by his cunning, your thoughts will be led astray from a sincere and pure devotion to Christ." The language of Paul’s analogy suggests that Eve was led astray from her pure virginity instead of saving herself for her fiancee Adam. What kind of purity is possessed by a virgin awaiting her betrothed that can be seduced away from her? What form must such seduction take? And note the very close similarity of the language here to that in 4 Maccabees 18:7-8, where the point is that the serpent deceived Eve out of her virginity.28

It seems likely, then, that Paul did know the tradition of Eve’s seduction by Satan. Would he also have been familiar with an alternative version of the story, one in which Eve is not seduced but raped? Presumably not, at least insofar as he took either version literally. Each version excludes the other, unless one had an awfully good reason to try to harmonize them. But in view of the fact that the rape of Eve story is attested only in Nag Hammadi documents usually dated sometime in the second century, we might wonder if the intertextual kinship of our passage with these writings should suggest to us a post-Pauline author and date for this section of 1 Corinthians. We must reject the knee-jerk reaction that would cause some to repudiate the interpretation simply because the result would be an anachronism in the text. There is indeed (quite possibly) an anachronism, but it is present in 1 Corinthians, not in our exegesis of it.
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Old 09-24-2005, 07:23 AM   #40
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The Hypostasis of the Archons and On the Origin of the World are probably late Gnostic texts On the Origin of the World is probably late 3rd century CE and The Hypostasis of the Archons late 2nd or early 3rd century.

The Apocryphon of John which represents an earlier form of this story has Eve seduced not raped.

Unless one is suggesting a late 2nd century interpolater it is unlikely that Eve being raped is part of the background to the passage.

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