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Old 02-29-2008, 12:41 AM   #81
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PhilosopherJay View Post
Hi Reniaa,

Good criticisms. Thanks.

When looking at a narrative such as this one, we have to consider how we should read it. If we are reading it as an historical account, the type given by 19th, 20th or 21st century newsreporters, we will read it simply for the historical information. However, if we see it as a constantly evolving dialogical ancient narrative, we will see it quite differently. In this case, we look at the starts and abrupt stops, the unexpected shifts in meaning, the replacement of characters, names and objects in the narrative. We try to see how the text might have been changed from the prior version. We may try to reconstruct the censorship mechanism.

To a certain extent, I am being heavily influenced by Freud's "Interpretation of Dreams" and I am treating the text as a dream that needs to be explained. We can justify this psycho-analysis of the text by considering that the religious world closely resembles a dream-world and religious writings are generally dream-like fantasies (consider the story of Adam and Eve, for example).

First note that the expression τι εμοι και σοι γυναι. It is translated differently by different Bible translations.

The New American Standard Bible has it as "Woman, what does that have to do with us? The King James has it as "Woman, what have I to do with thee?"

The expression is parallel to the expression we find in Mark 1:24 (also see Mark 5:7, Matthew 8:29, and Luke 4:34) that the demon/unclean spirit in a possessed man says to Jesus, "τί ἡμῖν καὶ σοί ιησου ναζαρηνε". The New American Standard Bible translate that as "What business do we have with each other, Jesus of Nazareth? The King James translates it as "what have we to do with you, you Jesus of Nazareth?"

If we compare the two translations, we see that the King James version is being consistent in preserving the parallel nature of the two lines:
"Woman, what have I to do with thee?"
"what have we to do with you, you Jesus of Nazareth?"
while the New American Standard Bible is being inconsistant:
"Woman, what does that have to do with us?
"What business do we have with each other, Jesus of Nazareth?"
Since τι εμοι και σοι γυναι and τί ἡμῖν καὶ σοί ιησου ναζαρηνε are such parallel expressions, we may judge that the New American Standard has elected to change the translation in order to avoid the parallelism that is in the original text. In other words, the reaction of the demon to Jesus in the original text is virtually the same as the reaction of Jesus to his mother. The King James version captures the parallel nature of the expressions. The New American
Standard disguises the parallel nature in its translation. It appears that the translators are trying to cover over the hostility of Jesus towards his mother.

We may take it that in the original text, Jesus' attitude towards his mother was identical to the demon's reaction to Jesus. In both cases their reaction is more or less a hostile and the attitude is one of "You're disgusting, get away from me."

Now, the next line, "My hour has not yet come" (οὔπω ἥκει ἡ ὥρα μου) makes no sense. It may be taken as my hour to get the wine hasn't come yet or as a reference to his death. In both cases, it doesn't really connect to the narrative. It appears to be a later addition to cover up another line. The demon at Mark 5:7 adds "I implore You by God, do not torment me!" This seems to fit here. We may take it that Jesus originally said "Woman, what have I to do with you. I implore you, by God, do not torment me." The original editor apparently did not like the idea of Jesus swearing at his mother, so he changed the line, "I implore you, by God, do not torment me," to the less offensive "My hour has not yet come," The editor, perhaps, wanted to show Jesus as being a prophet aware of his own death, and at the same time, excuse Jesus' hostility towards his mother, by suggesting that he was just in a bad mood and thinking about his mother.

This is a small change to a single line. The really important thing to notice in the text is the introduction of the ὁ ἀρχιτρίκλινος the chief stewart or ruler of the feast.

Since Jesus' mother has told Jesus to get the wine, it is obvious that she is ὁ ἀρχιτρίκλινος. The introduction of a new Chief Stewart into the narrative makes no sense. Only if the Chief Stewart is the mother does the text makes sense. We may substitute Jesus' mother for the chief stewart to see the orignal text more clearly.

Quote:
John 2:1-11 "And the third day, there was a marriage in Cana of Galilee: and the mother of Jesus was there. And Jesus also was invited, and his disciples, to the marriage. And the wine failing, the mother of Jesus said to him: They have no wine. And Jesus said to her: Woman, what is that to me and to you? My hour is not yet come. His mother said to the waiters: Whatsoever he shall say to you, do it. Now there were set there six water pots of stone, according to the manner of the purifying of the Jews, containing two or three measures apiece. Jesus said to them: Fill the water pots with water. And they filled them up to the brim. And Jesus said to them: Draw out now and carry to the chief steward of the feast. And they carried it. And when the chief steward Jesus' mother had tasted the water made wine and knew not whence it was, but the waiters knew who had drawn the water: the chief steward Jesus' mother called the bridegroom, And said to him: Every man at first sets forth good wine, and when men have well drunk, then that which is worse. But you have kept the good wine until now. This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee and manifested his glory. And his disciples believed in him." Rheims NT, NAB.
The story nows makes sense. We can now see the original story. Jesus' mother tells him to get more wine. He gets angry at her. How dare she ask him to bring her wine! There are two or three measures of wine in the storage jars. He has the waiters full the jars to mix in a lot of water. He has the waiters send it back to her. She tastes it and she is so drunk that she tells the bridegroom that it is the best wine yet.

We can now understand that this is not a miracle story at all. This is simply an anecdote about Jesus tricking his drunken mother by watering down her wine. The punchline is that she thinks it is the best wine of the evening.

Wine was ordinarily mixed with water in kraters (mixing bowls). Jesus mixed in the wine in the original wine storage jars, so his mother did not realize it was mixed wine.

We may take it that in the original narrative, Jesus pulled a series of tricks. This tricking of his mother at a wedding into drinking watered down wine was the first one.

Note that as an amusing anecdote, the watering-down-the-wine story makes perfect sense. Presented as a water-into-wine miracle, as the writer/editor of John does, it makes no sense. In the same way dreams make no sense until they are analyzed into their component parts and we see how they have been fit together

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay

P.S. The antipathy to wine shown by the Jesus character would indicate that the original story was about John the Baptist/Nazarene.


Quote:
Originally Posted by reniaa View Post


your statements are speculation if they have no proof behind them...



http://www.beingjewish.com/cycle/wedding.html

the wine is an important part of a jewish wedding extremely traditional and this is a quote from a normal one showing the mothers are all part of this.

a/ we do know that Joseph dies quite young but not when, so if only his wife Mary was around she would be in charge of supplies.

b/ so far all proof you have shown is the request for wine at a wedding and that he does it, by the same token if he was horrified over his mother being a drunk why would he do it?

c/ you are also picking and choosing how much of the scripture to show it goes on for longer and goes against your speculation then.



he says "my hour has not yet come" not "you are a drunk" this is the first miracle in cana and it's easy to see he was not really ready or sure it should start there but he allowed himself to be persuaded and then filled 6 jars full for the wedding. hmmm! would he do that if he though his mother would drink them down as a drunkard? I think not!

Also running out of wine at a wedding was a dishonor on the family even towards the end so quite natural for the mother to notice first she'd be the supplier rather than the father who if alive would have his own duties.



he also hung out with blind men and lepers does that mean she was blind and a leper too?

I'm not sure what you are getting at with this statement, which seems very speculative and vague at best?

So your best argument is well she asked for wine at wedding which she was in charge of when it ran out, therefore shes a drunk hmmm WEAK very weak.
Firstly I appreciate the work you put into this reply jay

Some of it is disturbing especially your liberal changing of wording to make it fit your arguements better, either saying that doesn't fit so lets get rid of it as with "my time has not yet come bit" or making chief steward a recognised job not done by mother of family but usually a respected servant changed into jesus's mother just to fit your arguements which to me weakens them a lot. You really have to take the texts as it stands if you start twisting, taking away and adding to suit your own wishes you really are invalidating your own arguements.

If it doesn't fit with your conclusions without you having to take away or add then i would suggest readjusting your evalutions and conclusions, making extra jigsaw pieces as an answer really doesn't work.

But since your bringing greek language translation into this debate as well I would like to see if others on this forum also with knowledge on translation would care to contribute to your conclusions on this?
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Old 02-29-2008, 12:58 AM   #82
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Seeing that mary is in a long list of Virgin Births in which the gods impregnated some poor unsuspecting woman, perhaps it would be best to poll the other myths to see how those gods 'did it' so to speak.
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Old 02-29-2008, 06:50 AM   #83
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Well Zeus seams to of favored a golden shower!:rolling:
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Old 02-29-2008, 08:26 AM   #84
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Default Methodology of Textual Reconstruction

Hi Reniaa,

My intention is not to fit the text to my conclusions, but to simply get the text to make sense with the least amount of changes possible to the text.

For example, let us say we are confronted with a bit of text like this:

Mother: Son, go to the market and buy us some milk.
Son: Yes mother, I will hurry.
Mother: Do not forget to sacrifice a dove to the Thunder God.
Son: I'm back, father, I prayed in the Church to Jesus as you requested.

It is fairly obvious that the text does not make sense as written. The narrative is illogical. The mother has suddenly transformed into a father without reason and the sacrifice to Zeus has changed into a prayer for Jesus. The simplest way to have it make sense would be to assume that the original last line was originally "I'm back, mother, I sacrifices a dove to Zeus as you requested. We may assume that an interpolator/editor did not like the reference to Zeus and changed it to a prayer for Jesus.

Now, this type of reconstruction may appear arbitrary, but in fact, it is very strict and precise if one follows certain rules: First, one can only make changes when the text does not make any sense. If the text makes sense as it is, then we have no reason to change it; second, we must make only the most minimal number of changes necessary to get the text to make sense. We could easily imagine different conversations between Jesus and his mother, but we must keep strictly to the text as written, and only offer the most minimal changes to the text necessary to get it to make sense; third, substitutions must fit, so if "B" appears to have suddenly replaced "A," then "A" and only "A" must go in its place. For example, in the wedding text, Jesus' mother orders the wine. Yet, when the wine is brought, it is the Chief Stewart who tastes the wine. Yet logically, in any other narrative, we would expect that the person who orders the wine would be the one to taste the wine when it is brought. Also, logically, the narrative demands that we find out what happens to the mother who ordered the wine. Was she pleased or displeased with Jesus' actions? We cannot substitute "Peter" or "Thomas" or anybody else at the party for the chief stewart. We may only substitute the person who ordered the wine (Jesus' mother) for the chief stewart (the taster of the wine). Any other substitution does not make the narrative more logical. Only this substitution does make it more logical.

One question we may have about this method of psychoanalyzing the text is how can we apply Freud's method of dream interpretation to a text which is not a dream. It is my belief that Freud's method of dream interpretation also applies to non-fiction works. For example, it may be applied to films to understand their construction. When something does not make sense in a film, one often looks for later editorial changes that were made to explain the illogical nature of the narrative. An example of this is the ending to the film "Kiss Me Deadly" (Aldrich, 1955). It has the extraordinary ending of the hero (Mike Hammer) and the woman he rescues (Velda) being killed in an atomic explosion. The ending does not make any sense. Why have the hero rescue the girl and then die? It turns out the movie's ending developed from two acts of censorship. Originally the movie was about stolen narcotic drugs, but this was a taboo subject under the censorship of the Catholic Hayes Code in effect at major studios in the 1950's. Therefore the writer, A.I. Bezzerides, changed the novel's story into one about a stolen atomic bomb. In the original ending, Hammer and Velda escape and, while running away on a beach, they stop to look back at the atomic explosion. Apparently, evangelical preachers in the South objected to the ending as it was an obvious reference to Lot's wife turning back to look at the destruction of Sodom. The studio, behind the director's back, edited out this footage. Without this footage, it appears that the hero and his girl die in the atomic explosion. Thus we see how censorship produces non-sense or illogic in a narrative text.

Thus when we see non-sense or illogic in a narrative; for example, when an important character disappears and a meaningless character inexplicably says lines that only make sense when said by the important character, we may assume that an act of censorship or an editorial change has been made in the narrative. By undoing the substitution, we may see the form of the original narrative.

Now, in this case, the line "My time has not yet come" does not make sense because there is no reference point for the audience. Jesus' mother does not know that Jesus is going to die soon, so such a statement just makes Jesus look cowardly and death-obsessed to the audience who know the ending, and completely crazy to the audience who do not know the ending. On the other hand, if it is just a reference to his time for getting the wine, it is almost a mockery of later pronouncements by Jesus about his own death. Therefore, it has to be considered highly suspect as a later interpolation.

As far as the chief stewart being a respected servant, the term ὁ ἀρχιτρίκλινος according to Strong's Greek dictionary means "The director of entertainment" It refers to the person in charge of the wedding. The text shows us Jesus' mother doing this function as she is a) in charge of supplying the wine and b) she is in charge of all the servants. Both of these are jobs that the ἀρχιτρίκλινος would have. It can hardly be coincidence that she disappears in the text after performing these jobs and the ἀρχιτρίκλινος shows up, saying things that one would expect the person who asked for the additional wine would say.

In my analysis, I left out the obvious substitution that the text makes of the bridegroom for Jesus at the end. To be quite honest, I believe the structure of the narrative indicates that the bridegroom must have been Jesus. It begins with Jesus' mother asking Jesus to get more wine and ends with her congratulating him for saving the best wine for last. The editor wanted to cover up the fact that Jesus was being married, even more than the fact that Jesus' mother liked to drink wine.

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay


Quote:
Originally Posted by reniaa View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by PhilosopherJay View Post
Hi Reniaa,

{snip}

Firstly I appreciate the work you put into this reply jay

Some of it is disturbing especially your liberal changing of wording to make it fit your arguements better, either saying that doesn't fit so lets get rid of it as with "my time has not yet come bit" or making chief steward a recognised job not done by mother of family but usually a respected servant changed into jesus's mother just to fit your arguements which to me weakens them a lot. You really have to take the texts as it stands if you start twisting, taking away and adding to suit your own wishes you really are invalidating your own arguements.

If it doesn't fit with your conclusions without you having to take away or add then i would suggest readjusting your evalutions and conclusions, making extra jigsaw pieces as an answer really doesn't work.

But since your bringing greek language translation into this debate as well I would like to see if others on this forum also with knowledge on translation would care to contribute to your conclusions on this?
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Old 03-01-2008, 08:15 AM   #85
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Default Deeper Analysis: The Substitution of Mother for father and Wife

Hi Reniaa,

A good objective methodology will refute a subjective hypothesis. In this case, after analyzing the wedding story a bit more, I have to reject my original hypothesis that Jesus' mother was portrayed as a drunk. In fact she was not portrayed at all at the wedding. A deeper analysis of the text reveals this and more interesting things.

The structure of the story, after the previous analysis still leaves important questions unanswered: Why should the disciples see Jesus tricking his mother at his wedding into drinking watered-down wine as a miracle and why was Jesus portrayed as being angry at this mother at the beginning of the text. Both of these questions are answered if we assume that it was not his mother at all that he was angry at and tricked, but rather his bride. The twin problems of Jesus being angry at his bride for asking for more wine and the disciples being pleased at the trick becomes understandable if in the original text there was a bride instead of the mother.

The bride would be the Samaritan woman at the well. All meetings of women at wells in the Hebrew Scriptures precede a wedding between the man and woman who meet. We may take it that this is what happened in this case. Although the scene at the well is (mis)placed after the wedding scene, we may take it that in the original the well scene came just before the wedding scene. In that scene, there is another piece of nonsense that has to be unraveled:

Quote:
4.16 Jesus said to her, "Go, call your husband, and come here." 4.17 The woman answered him, "I have no husband." Jesus said to her, "You are right in saying, 'I have no husband'; 4.18 for you have had five husbands, and he whom you now have is not your husband; this you said truly." 4.19 The woman said to him, "Sir, I perceive that you are a prophet.
Jesus wrongly tells her that she has a husband. The woman says that she has no husband. Jesus agrees, but then tells her she has five husbands and says nonsensically "he whom you now have is not your husband." Somehow , the woman deduces that Jesus is a prophet from this. It appears that the editor has turned this dialogue into nonsense by making a substitutions to cover up what is really going on. Logically, we understand that Jesus predicts something, but it cannot be that she has no husband or that she has five husbands. Since he marries her at Cana, we may assume that he predicts that he will be her husband. Also, the reference to the five husbands makes sense only if it is five brothers. We may rewrite the scene to make it reflect its original sense this way:

Quote:
4.16 Jesus said to her, "Go, call your husband, who is speaking to you and come here." 4.17 The woman answered him, "I have no husband, and you whom I am speaking to is not my husband." Jesus said to her, "You are right in saying, 'I have no husband; 4.18 for you have five husbands brothers, and he whom you now have speaking to you is not your husband; this you said truly. But he will be your husband" 4.19 The woman said to him, "Sir, I perceive that you are a prophet.
By erasing Jesus' proposal of marriage and changing the five brothers into husbands, the editor made nonsense out of the Samaritan woman's "you are prophet" declaration. We can now rewrite the scene at the wedding in line with this.

Quote:
John 2:1-11 "And the third day, there was a marriage in Cana of Galilee: and the mother father of Jesus was there. And Jesus also was invited the father of the bride, and his disciples, the woman's brothers to the marriage. And the wine failing, the mother bride of Jesus said to him: They have no wine. And Jesus said to her: Woman, what is that to me and to you? My hour is not yet come. His mother bride said to the waitersbrothers: Whatsoever he shall say to you, do it. Now there were set there six water pots of stone, according to the manner of the purifying of the Jews, containing two or three measures apiece. Jesus said to them: Fill the water pots with water. And they filled them up to the brim. And Jesus said to them: Draw out now and carry to the chief steward of the feast. bride. And they carried it. And when the chief steward bride had tasted the water made wine and knew not whence it was, but the waiters brothers knew who had drawn the water: the chief steward bride called the bridegroom, And said to him: Every man at first sets forth good wine, and when men have well drunk, then that which is worse. But you have kept the good wine until now. This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee of cana in Galilee and manifested his glory. And his disciples the brothers believed in him."
Rheims NT, NAB.

It was customary for fathers to attend the wedding. The father being at the wedding would lend legitimacy to it. The mother being at the wedding adds nothing. The editor changed it to Jesus' mother as Jesus' father was supposed to be God. The mother is a double substitute, first a substitute for the father and then she becomes a substitute for the bride when asking about the wine. The chief stewart then becomes a substitute for the mother, as it was probably deemed improper to show Jesus' mother enjoying wine, even in watered-down form.

The wedding takes place in Cana, since it is Jesus' wedding, we may take it that he was from Cana.

This helps us to understand Mark (16.9) Now when he rose early on the first day of the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene, from whom he had cast out seven demons and (Luke 8.1) ...And the twelve were with him, 8.2 and also some women who had been healed of evil spirits and infirmities: Mary, called Magdalene, from whom seven demons had gone out,

Mary had seven demons and five brothers. These twelve are the original "disciples" of Jesus in the original story. Since this is the first "miracle," we may take it that in the original gospel story, seven demons are tricked by Jesus. These are his seven miracles. The first demon is apparently an alcoholic demon. We must go through the exorcism miracles one by one to find the other six demons of Mary.

We may propose from this is that the original gospel story was called something like "The Seven Demons of Mary." The seven demons are sins or bad habits of Mary. Her prophet-husband cleverly cures her of each one.


Warmly,

Philosopher Jay

Quote:
Originally Posted by PhilosopherJay View Post
Hi Reniaa,

My intention is not to fit the text to my conclusions, but to simply get the text to make sense with the least amount of changes possible to the text.

For example, let us say we are confronted with a bit of text like this:

Mother: Son, go to the market and buy us some milk.
Son: Yes mother, I will hurry.
Mother: Do not forget to sacrifice a dove to the Thunder God.
Son: I'm back, father, I prayed in the Church to Jesus as you requested.

It is fairly obvious that the text does not make sense as written. The narrative is illogical. The mother has suddenly transformed into a father without reason and the sacrifice to Zeus has changed into a prayer for Jesus. The simplest way to have it make sense would be to assume that the original last line was originally "I'm back, mother, I sacrifices a dove to Zeus as you requested. We may assume that an interpolator/editor did not like the reference to Zeus and changed it to a prayer for Jesus.

Now, this type of reconstruction may appear arbitrary, but in fact, it is very strict and precise if one follows certain rules: First, one can only make changes when the text does not make any sense. If the text makes sense as it is, then we have no reason to change it; second, we must make only the most minimal number of changes necessary to get the text to make sense. We could easily imagine different conversations between Jesus and his mother, but we must keep strictly to the text as written, and only offer the most minimal changes to the text necessary to get it to make sense; third, substitutions must fit, so if "B" appears to have suddenly replaced "A," then "A" and only "A" must go in its place. For example, in the wedding text, Jesus' mother orders the wine. Yet, when the wine is brought, it is the Chief Stewart who tastes the wine. Yet logically, in any other narrative, we would expect that the person who orders the wine would be the one to taste the wine when it is brought. Also, logically, the narrative demands that we find out what happens to the mother who ordered the wine. Was she pleased or displeased with Jesus' actions? We cannot substitute "Peter" or "Thomas" or anybody else at the party for the chief stewart. We may only substitute the person who ordered the wine (Jesus' mother) for the chief stewart (the taster of the wine). Any other substitution does not make the narrative more logical. Only this substitution does make it more logical.

One question we may have about this method of psychoanalyzing the text is how can we apply Freud's method of dream interpretation to a text which is not a dream. It is my belief that Freud's method of dream interpretation also applies to non-fiction works. For example, it may be applied to films to understand their construction. When something does not make sense in a film, one often looks for later editorial changes that were made to explain the illogical nature of the narrative. An example of this is the ending to the film "Kiss Me Deadly" (Aldrich, 1955). It has the extraordinary ending of the hero (Mike Hammer) and the woman he rescues (Velda) being killed in an atomic explosion. The ending does not make any sense. Why have the hero rescue the girl and then die? It turns out the movie's ending developed from two acts of censorship. Originally the movie was about stolen narcotic drugs, but this was a taboo subject under the censorship of the Catholic Hayes Code in effect at major studios in the 1950's. Therefore the writer, A.I. Bezzerides, changed the novel's story into one about a stolen atomic bomb. In the original ending, Hammer and Velda escape and, while running away on a beach, they stop to look back at the atomic explosion. Apparently, evangelical preachers in the South objected to the ending as it was an obvious reference to Lot's wife turning back to look at the destruction of Sodom. The studio, behind the director's back, edited out this footage. Without this footage, it appears that the hero and his girl die in the atomic explosion. Thus we see how censorship produces non-sense or illogic in a narrative text.

Thus when we see non-sense or illogic in a narrative; for example, when an important character disappears and a meaningless character inexplicably says lines that only make sense when said by the important character, we may assume that an act of censorship or an editorial change has been made in the narrative. By undoing the substitution, we may see the form of the original narrative.

Now, in this case, the line "My time has not yet come" does not make sense because there is no reference point for the audience. Jesus' mother does not know that Jesus is going to die soon, so such a statement just makes Jesus look cowardly and death-obsessed to the audience who know the ending, and completely crazy to the audience who do not know the ending. On the other hand, if it is just a reference to his time for getting the wine, it is almost a mockery of later pronouncements by Jesus about his own death. Therefore, it has to be considered highly suspect as a later interpolation.

As far as the chief stewart being a respected servant, the term ὁ ἀρχιτρίκλινος according to Strong's Greek dictionary means "The director of entertainment" It refers to the person in charge of the wedding. The text shows us Jesus' mother doing this function as she is a) in charge of supplying the wine and b) she is in charge of all the servants. Both of these are jobs that the ἀρχιτρίκλινος would have. It can hardly be coincidence that she disappears in the text after performing these jobs and the ἀρχιτρίκλινος shows up, saying things that one would expect the person who asked for the additional wine would say.

In my analysis, I left out the obvious substitution that the text makes of the bridegroom for Jesus at the end. To be quite honest, I believe the structure of the narrative indicates that the bridegroom must have been Jesus. It begins with Jesus' mother asking Jesus to get more wine and ends with her congratulating him for saving the best wine for last. The editor wanted to cover up the fact that Jesus was being married, even more than the fact that Jesus' mother liked to drink wine.

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay


Quote:
Originally Posted by reniaa View Post

Firstly I appreciate the work you put into this reply jay

Some of it is disturbing especially your liberal changing of wording to make it fit your arguements better, either saying that doesn't fit so lets get rid of it as with "my time has not yet come bit" or making chief steward a recognised job not done by mother of family but usually a respected servant changed into jesus's mother just to fit your arguements which to me weakens them a lot. You really have to take the texts as it stands if you start twisting, taking away and adding to suit your own wishes you really are invalidating your own arguements.

If it doesn't fit with your conclusions without you having to take away or add then i would suggest readjusting your evalutions and conclusions, making extra jigsaw pieces as an answer really doesn't work.

But since your bringing greek language translation into this debate as well I would like to see if others on this forum also with knowledge on translation would care to contribute to your conclusions on this?
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