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Old 08-17-2007, 11:28 AM   #31
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Is the alleged ending of Judaic sacrifices with the destruction of the Temple in AD70 an important piece of historical evidence about the change from immanent to transcendental gods?

Maybe that incident is very important in launching xianity.
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Old 08-17-2007, 11:42 AM   #32
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Is the alleged ending of Judaic sacrifices with the destruction of the Temple in AD70 an important piece of historical evidence about the change from immanent to transcendental gods?
As I said, sacrificing to a super-transcendent god really doesn't make much sense. I suspect that the Jews must have had an inkling of this and felt uncomfortable about it. In that sense, stopping the sacrifices could even have been a reinforcement of transcendence.

I don't think that Judaism itself abolished transcendence, rather it was its Christian offshoot. And interestingly, Christianity posited as its origin a sacrifice (which is a very immanent, very kata sarka thing), the mother of all sacrifices so to speak, where the deity reconnected itself to the earthly realm by in effect sacrificing himself. This mega-sacrifice was so effective that as of then the connection with the deity was assumed to have been established for all times, no more sacrifices were necessary (to slightly paraphrase Hebrews ).

One must admire the ingenuity of the idea. How does a super-transcendent god reestablish the connection with the earthly realm? Well, let him do that very kata sarka thing, a sacrifice, and not just that, let him sacrifice himself to himself, bringing the idea of sacrifice full-circle, which cannot fail to firmly reestablish connectivity!

Gerard Stafleu
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Old 08-17-2007, 01:07 PM   #33
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See the not all flesh thread.

Why is it that in xian's day to day thinking and rituals and in the structure of all church services, the life of Jesus is a minor sub plot? Xmas and Easter cannot really be considered as related to his life - there do seem to be strong theological overtones!
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Old 08-17-2007, 02:36 PM   #34
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When Paul then goes on and asks us to look at Israel according to the flesh, he doesn't so much refer to just the people of Israel, rather he wants us to look at them in their kata sarka ways. Because although the deity of these people was transcendent, the people themselves were still firmly stuck in the kata sarka world. These poor souls made a rather inefficient attempt to connect with their deity via sacrifices (fleshly, very kata sarka), and Paul compares that attempt to the similar but much better way in which his believers could communicate with Christ. The original attempts were rather inefficient because a transcendent deity can't be influenced by sacrifices: these are a way to influence immanent deities via sympathetic magic. What Paul is saying, though, is that at least the Israelites gave it a try. But Paul's way is much better, communicating with an at least partly earthly, immanent, kata sarka Christ.

Gerard Stafleu
1 Cr 10:14-33 denounces sacrifices to idols/demons and Paul specifically denies these are comparable to the sacrifices Jews make to God, or to simple partaking in a meal with non-believers. Nor does the passage in any way indicate that Paul has in mind "better way of communicating", much less a with "partly earthly, immanent, kata sarka Christ" - whatever that is. Paul knew no such ugly thing. The only Christ Paul knew was the one crucified - kata sarka (,and for those who know Czech slang, basta fidli).

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Old 08-17-2007, 08:04 PM   #35
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Does anybody have a credible explanation for Paul choosing to use this "odd" phrase to describe both the unique nature of the incarnated Christ and mundane lineage or descent?
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Old 08-17-2007, 08:14 PM   #36
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Does anybody have a credible explanation for Paul choosing to use this "odd" phrase to describe both the unique nature of the incarnated Christ and mundane lineage or descent?
I think that Doherty did do that? Both Paul (on earth) and Christ (above the earth but still in the "zone of corruption") were in "the sphere of the flesh", therefore they could both be referred to as being "kata sarka".

As Doherty wrote earlier in this thread:
"Christ may have a relationship with “flesh” in the mystical sense, especially when performing his redemptive acts, but during those acts he also took on a sort of “flesh” and entered a “fleshly realm”, perhaps below the moon or simply some sort of mythical “other place” where something like crucifixion or hanging on a tree when “in the likeness” of a human could take place. This sort of thinking, of course (despite Don’s adamant protests), can be found in the mythological outlook of the time."
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Old 08-17-2007, 08:45 PM   #37
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Does anybody have a credible explanation for Paul choosing to use this "odd" phrase to describe both the unique nature of the incarnated Christ and mundane lineage or descent?
I think that Doherty did do that? Both Paul (on earth) and Christ (above the earth but still in the "zone of corruption") were in "the sphere of the flesh", therefore they could both be referred to as being "kata sarka".
No, that tells me why one could use the phrase for both. It doesn't explain why Paul would choose to use such an "odd" phrase to describe both.

I think everyone agrees the phrase is odd. Right?

It is understandable why Paul would choose such an odd phrase to describe the nature of his incarnated Christ given the uniqueness of that nature. Right?

It is not so understandable, at least to me, why Paul would also choose the same odd phrase to refer to mundane flesh and descent.

Does that make my question more clear?
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Old 08-17-2007, 09:01 PM   #38
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No, not everyone agrees that the phrase is odd. How many times has it been pointed out in other Greek writers the same phrase?
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Old 08-18-2007, 12:10 AM   #39
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No, not everyone agrees that the phrase is odd. How many times has it been pointed out in other Greek writers the same phrase?
None in this thread and Earl asked for them:

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If you would like to dispute my contention that even Romans 9:3 and 1 Cor. 10:18 are “strange and woolly” to refer to ethnic descent or membership in a human race, perhaps you will give us an external parallel in the literature of the time (or any time in the ancient world) showing that non-Christian Greek speakers ever used “kata sarka” to express themselves as Paul did in those two passages.
If it isn't actually odd, I think that would answer the question.
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Old 08-18-2007, 12:17 AM   #40
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I thought this was settled ages ago. Ben has had this up on his website.

Quote:
Josephus, War 2.8.11 §154-155

Και γαρ ερρωται παρ αυτοις ηδε η δοξα, φθαρτα μεν ειναι τα σωματα και την υλην ου μονιμον αυτων, τας δε ψυχας αθανατους αει διαμενειν, και συμπλεκεσθαι μεν εκ του λεπτοτατου φοιτωσας αιθερος ωσπερ ειρκταις τοις σωμασιν ιυγγι τινι φυσικη κατασπωμενας.

For their doctrine is this, that bodies are corruptible, and that the matter they are made of is not permanent, but that the souls are immortal and continue for ever; and that they come out of the most subtle air and are united to their bodies as to prisons, into which they are drawn by a certain natural enticement.

Επειδαν δε ανεθωσι των κατα σαρκα δεσμων, οια δη μακρας δουλειας απηλλαγμενας τοτε χαιρειν και μετεωρους φερεσθαι. και ταις μεν αγαθαις ομοδοξουντες παισιν Ελληνων αποφαινονται την υπερ ωκεανον διαιταν αποκεισθαι και χωρον ουτε ομβροις ουτε νιφετοις ουτε καυμασι βαρυνομενον, αλλ ον εξ ωκεανου πραυς αει ζεφυρος επιπνεων αναψυχει ταις δε φαυλαις ζοφωδη και χειμεριον αφοριζονται μυχον γεμοντα τιμωριων αδιαλειπτων.

But, when they are set free from the bonds according to the flesh, they then, as released from a long bondage, rejoice and mount upward. And this is like the opinions of the Greeks, that good souls have their habitations beyond the ocean, in a region that is oppressed neither with storms of rain or snow nor with intense heat, but that this place is such as is refreshed by the gentle breathing of a west wind that is perpetually blowing from the ocean, while they allot to bad souls a dark and tempestuous den, full of never-ceasing punishments.
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