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Old 12-27-2011, 04:02 AM   #601
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I suggested that it is not easy to understand how one forms the plural of Greek acronyms
Your suggestion was irrelevant, since "Jesus" is not an acronym, either in Greek or in any other language.
Hypotheses about the authorship and almost universal appearance of the "nomina sacra" are not irrelevant to this discussion, because after all the name of Jesus (which has been discussed at length here) does not actually appear in the earliest Greek sources of the new testament. The name of Jesus is present in the EVIDENCE only as an ENCRYPTION or ABBREVIATION ("J_S").
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Old 12-27-2011, 09:15 AM   #602
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... The context was the "TF", the essential fiction of the gospels and this is being described as negative evidence. That Josephus wrote the TF is an event which did not happen. That anyone wrote anything about Jesus outside the NT in the 1st century are events which did not happen.



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If almost everything outside Josephus points in a different direction, to the essential fiction of the Gospel picture and its central figure, how can Josephus be made to bear on his shoulders, through two passages whose reliability has thus far remained unsettled, the counterweight to all this other negative evidence?"
You put the emphasis on the wrong words - the works of Josephus on one hand are contrasted with "other" (negative) evidence on the other hand.

But on reading this again, I think that Doherty is not using the term negative evidence in the sense as your other sources. He clearly means evidence pointing in the other direction.

It is clear that he does not assume that a forged passage by itself provides evidence in favor of the proposition that Jesus did not exist.
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Old 12-27-2011, 09:48 AM   #603
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No, that's not correct. Doug Shaver, as I did before him, criticised mountainman for the way he formed the plural of the English word 'Jesus'. None of us were writing in Latin.
You are correct. I was mistaken.

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Originally Posted by tanya
1. Doug, you criticised mountainman for sloppiness in forming the plural of the Latin word, Jesus.

2. I suggested that it is not easy to understand how one forms the plural of Greek acronyms, like I X, where both I and X have a superscript bar across, signalling employment of those symbols to represent the Greek names Iesous Christou.

3. I further inquired from forum participants how one should form the plural of such Greek acronyms.

4. Your rejoinder above, is, in my view, a non-sequitur, for I at no time, introduced the notion of forming the plural of an ENGLISH word. I X is not an English word:
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
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Originally Posted by tanya
1. Doug, you criticised mountainman for sloppiness in forming the plural of the Latin word, Jesus.
No, I didn't.

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Originally Posted by tanya
2. I suggested that it is not easy to understand how one forms the plural of Greek acronyms
Your suggestion was irrelevant, since "Jesus" is not an acronym, either in Greek or in any other language.
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Originally Posted by tanya
I at no time, introduced the notion of forming the plural of an ENGLISH word.
Why not? That's what I was talking about in the post to which you responded.

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I would expect that in most contexts, the plural would be formed adding apostrophe-s: IX's.
Works for ordinary masculine Greek nouns
No, it doesn't. It works for ordinary English renderings of characters being mentioned without usage.
Mountainman invoked an incorrect plural of an English word, Jesus, (incorrectly identified by me, as a Latin word-->daydreaming of Feliz Navidad, and surmising, incorrectly, that Spanish is derived from Latin, that the Latin is almost the same as the Spanish, whereas, in fact, the Latin is very similar to the Greek, and the English is close to Spanish, for this particular word, Jesus.)

Doug then berated Mountainman, for writing a grammatically incorrect plural of a proper name. I endeavored to get the focus back on the ancient texts' representation of Jesus, i.e. I X with a bar above the two letters, a Greek acronym, representing, ostensibly, Jesus Christ.

My intention was to elicit feedback on the proper method of indicating the plural of a Greek, proper name, represented as an acronym, or what Doug calls, "initialism", a term unknown to me, until today. Later I will endeavor to discover what meaning, if any this term conveys to the rest of planet earth.

I am keen to learn how one should write the plural of I C (with a bar above both letters), referring, in Codex Sinaiticus, to the character we call Jesus Christ, in English, e.g. Mark 1:1.

Somehow, writing "many I C's" doesn't seem appropriate...

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Old 12-27-2011, 10:33 PM   #604
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Your suggestion was irrelevant, since "Jesus" is not an acronym, either in Greek or in any other language.
Hypotheses about the authorship and almost universal appearance of the "nomina sacra" are not irrelevant to this discussion
The discussion going on, when Tanya made the comment to which I was responding, was (I thought) about the correct plural of the word "Jesus." Your hypotheses about the nomina sacra are entirely irrelevant to that discussion.
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Old 12-27-2011, 10:40 PM   #605
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I endeavored to get the focus back on the ancient texts' representation of Jesus, i.e. I X with a bar above the two letters, a Greek acronym, representing, ostensibly, Jesus Christ.
It should have been apparent to me that that was what you you trying to do. I didn't see that for some reason. I thought you were trying to establish a connection between "IX" and "Jesus" to shed light on how "Jesus" should be pluralized. I apologize for thinking you were so scatterbrained as to suppose there could be such a connection.
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Old 12-30-2011, 08:31 PM   #606
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... The context was the "TF", the essential fiction of the gospels and this is being described as negative evidence. That Josephus wrote the TF is an event which did not happen. That anyone wrote anything about Jesus outside the NT in the 1st century are events which did not happen.



Quote:
If almost everything outside Josephus points in a different direction, to the essential fiction of the Gospel picture and its central figure, how can Josephus be made to bear on his shoulders, through two passages whose reliability has thus far remained unsettled, the counterweight to all this other negative evidence?"
You put the emphasis on the wrong words - the works of Josephus on one hand are contrasted with "other" (negative) evidence on the other hand.

But on reading this again, I think that Doherty is not using the term negative evidence in the sense as your other sources. He clearly means evidence pointing in the other direction.

It is clear that he does not assume that a forged passage by itself provides evidence in favor of the proposition that Jesus did not exist.

Of course that is clear. But it only serves to highlight the pivotal nature of the proposition, or in keeping with this thread hypothesis, that Jesus did not exist or its antithesis that he did. Negative evidence is summarised as events that did not occur. It includes forgeries and fabrications.

The New Testament for example, according to a core principle of the historical method - "Any given source may be forged or corrupted. Strong indications of the originality of the source increase its reliability" - may be forged or corrupted.













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Originally Posted by J-D
No, that's not correct. Doug Shaver, as I did before him, criticised mountainman for the way he formed the plural of the English word 'Jesus'. None of us were writing in Latin.
Season's greetings to Clivedurdle's "Jesi"


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Old 12-30-2011, 10:24 PM   #607
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... Negative evidence is summarised as events that did not occur. It includes forgeries and fabrications.
I've tried to explain to you why negative evidence does not include forgeries or fabrications. No one else that you have found uses the term negative evidence to include forgeries or fabrications.

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The New Testament for example, according to a core principle of the historical method - "Any given source may be forged or corrupted. Strong indications of the originality of the source increase its reliability" - may be forged or corrupted.
This statement says nothing of interest at this point in the debate. But that's true of this entire thread.

And this link will not work: searches are not saved.
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Season's greetings to Clivedurdle's "Jesi"
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Old 12-30-2011, 10:33 PM   #608
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Negative evidence is summarised as events that did not occur. It includes forgeries and fabrications.
Forgery does happen sometimes. In those cases where it does happen it is, by definition and obviously, an event that did occur, and so cannot be included in any category of events that did not occur. For example, Clifford Irving's forgery of an autobiography of Howard Hughes is an example of an event that did occur, not an example of an event that did not occur. Clifford Irving was convicted of fraud: I see no reason to describe the evidence on which he was convicted as 'negative evidence'.
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Old 12-30-2011, 11:53 PM   #609
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Negative evidence is summarised as events that did not occur. It includes forgeries and fabrications.
Forgery does happen sometimes. In those cases where it does happen it is, by definition and obviously, an event that did occur, and so cannot be included in any category of events that did not occur. For example, Clifford Irving's forgery of an autobiography of Howard Hughes is an example of an event that did occur, not an example of an event that did not occur. Clifford Irving was convicted of fraud: I see no reason to describe the evidence on which he was convicted as 'negative evidence'.

That Howard Hughes wrote in his own hand the introductory letters that Clifford Michael Irving used to convince his publisher into accepting a fake "autobiography" of reclusive businessman Howard Hughes in the early 1970s, are events that did not occur.
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Old 12-30-2011, 11:59 PM   #610
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Negative evidence is summarised as events that did not occur. It includes forgeries and fabrications.
Forgery does happen sometimes. In those cases where it does happen it is, by definition and obviously, an event that did occur, and so cannot be included in any category of events that did not occur. For example, Clifford Irving's forgery of an autobiography of Howard Hughes is an example of an event that did occur, not an example of an event that did not occur. Clifford Irving was convicted of fraud: I see no reason to describe the evidence on which he was convicted as 'negative evidence'.
That Howard Hughes wrote in his own hand the introductory letters that Clifford Michael Irving used to convince his publisher into accepting a fake "autobiography" of reclusive businessman Howard Hughes in the early 1970s, are events that did not occur.
What you write does not in any way invalidate the earlier observation of mine to which you are ostensibly responding. I am aware of what did and what did not happen in the case under discussion, and it is not correct to say of it that forgery was an event that did not occur.
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