andrewcriddle

It has been suggested in previous threads that the passage in 'Antiquities' book 18 about John the Baptist is possibly an interpolation because its account of John being sent by Herod to the fortress of Machaerus and executed, conflicts with the slightly earlier claim by Josephus that Machaerus was under the authority of King Aretas, rather than Herod.

There is however a textual problem.

Referring to Herod's wife/Aretas's daughter Josephus in most English translations says 'which was subject to her father' translates TOTE PATRI AUTHS hUPOTELEI. This is not what the manuscripts have but is an emendation accepted by most edirors. The manuscripts read TW(I) TE PATRI AUTHS hUPOTELH which is clumsy but should probably be translated 'and to the one subject to her Father.'

Hence the actual text of the manuscripts should probably be translated Hence we lack good evidence that Josephus claimed that Machaerus was subject to Aretas hence there is no discrepancy with the account about John the Baptist.

Andrew Criddle

Peter Kirby

Who would have thought to check the Greek? Thank you for this. We have to be alert to the presence of errors and assumptions in the translation.

kind thoughts,
Peter Kirby

andrewcriddle

I made a mistake here although the main point is not affected. It should be:

'which was subject to her father' translates TOTE PATRI AUTHS hUPOTELH. This is not what the manuscripts have but is an emendation accepted by most edirors. The manuscripts read TW(I) TE PATRI AUTHS hUPOTELEI which is clumsy but should probably be translated 'and to the one subject to her Father.'

Sorr.y about that.

Andrew Criddle

Vorkosigan

Why are the two texts different? Is the "vassal" comment an interpolation?

andrewcriddle

The point is that TOTE (in the printed editions) means 'then' giving a translation in which the clause refers to Machaerus as being at that time subject to her father.

TW(I) TE means 'and to' giving a translation in which as well as sending to Machaerus she also sends to the 'one subject to her Father' I paraphrased 'the one subject to her Father' as 'her Father's vassal'.

I must emphasis that the reading with TW(I) TE is clumsy that is why most printed Greek editions correct it.

(NOTE: I'm using (I) in TW(I) to represent iota subscript in the dative.)

Andrew Criddle

S.C.Carlson

The approach developed on the B-Greek list is to use a lower-case i, e.g. TWi. It is a little less typing.

P.S. Have you considered publishing this idea?