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Old 12-29-2007, 12:55 PM   #21
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Why? One says by sevens and one says by twos. Even if we accept your explanation, you still have the problem of telling us how to get seven of something into the ark in groups of two.
One verse says that the animals entered the ark in pairs. The other says that seven pairs of clean animals were to be taken on the ark. I do not see the basis for a contradiction. However, I am curious to see the original explanation for the contradiction and the reasoning behind that conclusion. Do you know if such an explanation is available anywhere on the internet?
"Of every clean beast thou shalt take to thee by sevens, the male and his female: and of beasts that are not clean by two, the male and his female."

Are you then saying that if seven means fourteen then does that mean that two really means four? Or are you just going to take whatever reading that suits your purpose?
I think the text is clear in saying that "sevens" is not seven individuals but seven pairs consisting of one male and one female. The unclean animals are taken by two, or one pair, consisting of a male and female. Had the translation said "by twos" then we would read it as two pairs. Some translations read "seven each" rather than "sevens" however, the qualifier "a male and his female" also points to seven pairs and not seven individuals as this would leave one animal without a mate. Later, the text says, "two by two" which also seems to refer to pairs.

Nonetheless, whoever derived the original argument for a contradiction here must have gone into detail about this so if we could get that explanation, we could see what the thinking was. You seem to be guessing about the nature of that argument which suggests to me that you have not seen it. I suspect that you would find that argument as interesting as I would.
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Old 12-29-2007, 12:59 PM   #22
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Helm, GOD IS OMNIPOTENT. Do you realize what that means? It means he can do ANYTHING. If he can do anything, why does he have to resort to mass murder to "defend his children"? There are almost an infinite number of actions He could have taken to stop the Egyptians from killing the Hebrews, without spilling one drop of blood. Why do God's apologists always ignore this important point? (And I haven't even mentioned the bloodthirsty bastard slaughtering the firstborn of Egypt).
Exactly, like just for example softening Pharao's heart, showing him the error of his way, and reconcile Egypt and the Hebrews. It's what Jesus would have done.
Your omnipotent god had to harden Pharaoh's so that he could send all those plagues and killings in order to soften his heart and show him his error? Why did your cruel god harden his heart in the first place? He was ready to let them go until your god stepped in and hardened his heart in order to kill a large number of Egyptians. Why do people keep claiming that this god is good?
In Romans, Paul explains it this way--

Romans 9
16 ...it is not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God who shows mercy.
17 For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, “For this very purpose I have raised you up, that I may show My power in you, and that My name may be declared in all the earth.”
18 Therefore [God] has mercy on whom He wills, and whom He wills He hardens.
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Old 12-29-2007, 01:02 PM   #23
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What about God's failure to give Egypt to Nebuchadnezzar like he promised to?
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Old 12-29-2007, 03:37 PM   #24
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The true contradiction in the resurrection accounts lies not in how many people came to the tomb, but in who told Mary Magdalene that Jesus had risen.

In Matthew's version, Mary is clearly told by a angel who sends her off to bring the news to the disciples. In John, she tells the disciples that she thinks the body has been stolen and is told by Jesus himself that he has been resurrected.
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Old 12-29-2007, 03:43 PM   #25
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How many stalls and horsemen?
KI1 4:26 And Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses for his chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen.
CH2 9:25 And Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen; whom he bestowed in the chariot cities, and with the king at Jerusalem.

Easy, in the Hebrew it was a copyist error. The correct one was four thousand.
Not necessarily. Kings says that "Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses for his chariots" while Chronicles says, "Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots...whom he bestowed in the chariot cities, and with the king at Jerusalem."

The 4,000 could be a subset of the 40,000. It might have been that each group of 4,000 horses was rotated into duty after some period of time in order to keep the horses fresh and not wear them out and maybe allow them to breed or be used for other purposes.

The Chronicler could well have had a copy of kings and decided to add the additional information.
Or maybe he sold 360,000 to his neighbor...

Or maybe he was just leasing 360,000 of them...

Or maybe he was inflating the numbers for tax purposes...

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Old 12-29-2007, 05:42 PM   #26
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Not necessarily. Kings says that "Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses for his chariots" while Chronicles says, "Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots...whom he bestowed in the chariot cities, and with the king at Jerusalem."

The 4,000 could be a subset of the 40,000. It might have been that each group of 4,000 horses was rotated into duty after some period of time in order to keep the horses fresh and not wear them out and maybe allow them to breed or be used for other purposes.

The Chronicler could well have had a copy of kings and decided to add the additional information.
Or maybe he sold 360,000 to his neighbor...

Or maybe he was just leasing 360,000 of them...

Or maybe he was inflating the numbers for tax purposes...

Then again, maybe you don't have an inkling as to what was going on because the text doesn't tell us.

Missing information does not make a contradiction.
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Old 12-29-2007, 06:20 PM   #27
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The true contradiction in the resurrection accounts lies not in how many people came to the tomb, but in who told Mary Magdalene that Jesus had risen.

In Matthew's version, Mary is clearly told by a angel who sends her off to bring the news to the disciples. In John, she tells the disciples that she thinks the body has been stolen and is told by Jesus himself that he has been resurrected.
That is not necessarily the way events are required to have played out. We know that a group of women that included Mary M. went to the tomb in the early morning. At some point, Mary Magdalene leaves the other women and goes to tell Peter (and John) that the tomb is empty. Given the scant information she gives Peter, it seems that Mary left the tomb immediately when she saw that the rock had been rolled away. She was not with the other women when they approached closer to the tomb and were confronted by the angels. It is the group of women without Mary who then leave the tomb to tell the disciples (in some location other than with Peter and John). Mary follows Peter and John to the tomb and lingers behind where she is met by Jesus. This scenario seems to be consistent with the information that we are given by Matthew and John. I think this is the basic harmony espoused by Biblical commentators.
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Old 12-29-2007, 08:12 PM   #28
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So once again the bible is the "inerrant word of god" until it doesn't make any fucking sense.....then YOU step in to make it all plausible?


Right.

There's an easier answer, you know. It's horseshit from the word "go."
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Old 12-29-2007, 09:08 PM   #29
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The true contradiction in the resurrection accounts lies not in how many people came to the tomb, but in who told Mary Magdalene that Jesus had risen.

In Matthew's version, Mary is clearly told by a angel who sends her off to bring the news to the disciples. In John, she tells the disciples that she thinks the body has been stolen and is told by Jesus himself that he has been resurrected.
That is not necessarily the way events are required to have played out. We know that a group of women that included Mary M. went to the tomb in the early morning. At some point, Mary Magdalene leaves the other women and goes to tell Peter (and John) that the tomb is empty. Given the scant information she gives Peter, it seems that Mary left the tomb immediately when she saw that the rock had been rolled away. She was not with the other women when they approached closer to the tomb and were confronted by the angels. It is the group of women without Mary who then leave the tomb to tell the disciples (in some location other than with Peter and John). Mary follows Peter and John to the tomb and lingers behind where she is met by Jesus. This scenario seems to be consistent with the information that we are given by Matthew and John. I think this is the basic harmony espoused by Biblical commentators.
The only problem with this attempt at "harmonization" is that Matthew's account as written doesn't leave an opening for such an interpretation. He specifically lists only two women seeing the angel and getting instructions from him/it to tell the disciples the news about Jesus. The two Marys are the only possible antecedents for the "women" and the pronoun "they" mentioned throughout the account. Now, if Mary M did actually leave the tomb before hearing what he/it had to say, then Matthew is either the most incompetent writer who ever lived or he actually believed what he wrote - that Mary M was in on all the action from first to last. (I mean what halfway intelligent person reading Matthew's account would picture Mary drifting from the scene if John's gospel didn't exist?).

The problem with these lame attempts at harmonizing is that they make mincemeat of the actual texts and turn the authors into either hacks or fools.
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Old 12-29-2007, 09:19 PM   #30
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Another obvious contadiction is that Luke says that Jesus appeared to "the eleven" on Easter night, while John claims Thomas was absent.
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