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Old 02-21-2013, 11:09 AM   #511
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Getting back to the topic of 8:4, here is my response to Earl's latest post from over a week ago, which focused on the tenses used in verses 1-6:

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Originally Posted by TedM View Post
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Originally Posted by Earl
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I do agree that the larger context has to do with the superiority of the new covenant. But, wouldn't you agree that for a given passage the MOST important context is to be found in the surrounding verses, as well as the grammar used in those surrounding verses? Verse 1 unambiguously refers to the present, stressing his presence as high priest in heaven NOW as 'the main point'. It sets the tone for the following verses. Other than the brief history lesson about tabernacle shown to Moses in verse 5, EVERY unambiguous tense used in 1-6 is in the present. I count TWELVE of them Earl. That's a pretty strong localized context, if you ask me.

And since verse 3 switches clearly to the subject of “gifts and sacrifices” to which is compared Jesus’ need to have something corresponding to perform, the latter must refer to the sacrifice which he did in fact offer, and that is entirely in the past, with no possible application to the present.
I totally disagree. Since priests offered "gifts and sacrifices" in the present, the 'something to offer' could have been a continuation of the author's discussion of the present in verses 1 and 2 which are about Jesus' present ministry. And there is no clear indication of the past in verses 4 and 5, but verse 6 IS clearly talking about the present. The only unambiguous references in the entire passage are talking about the present. That, to me, is a strong argument against a past tense in either 3 or 4.

Too many problems here, Ted. First of all, any role of Jesus as High Priest in the continuing present can relate only to his duty of intercession. Where Jesus is concerned, intercession is not performed through an act of sacrifice, or even of “offering”. In relation to Jesus, the writer consistently uses the latter term in connection with the offering of the blood. When Jesus “offers” something it is always his blood in the heavenly sanctuary. Offering, for him, has nothing to do with intercession, nor vice-versa.
'Something to offer', for him, very well could have everything to do with intercession and vice-versa. The reason this verse is ambiguous is that the author doesn't say "so too Jesus offered himself as a gift and sacrifice", or some variant. He could have, but he didn't. Instead the term 'has something to offer' begs the question: What? And When? Since the author used the same word in connection with Jesus' role on earth in 5:7 to refer to something other than offering himself --ie BEFORE performing his priestly self-sacrifice -- saying that Jesus 'offered up prayers and supplications', so too he may have been flexible enough to use the word in connection with his role of high priest AFTER performing his priestly self-sacrifice -- he would have 'something to offer' in his new and ongoing role of High Priest, as intercessor. The real problem with the verse Earl is that the meaning of the word 'offer' is not given. Thus, the verse is ambiguous but the context of 8:1-6 provides a clue and IMO 8:6 TELLS US what he 'has to offer:'

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6 But now He has obtained a more excellent ministry, by as much as He is also the mediator of a better covenant, which has been enacted on better promises.

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Originally Posted by Earl
Second, that intercessory duty is defined as something that takes place in heaven following the sacrifice. There is simply no thought, opportunity or consideration of him performing an intercessory duty in earth. So why would the writer even think of spelling out that he could not be a priest in regard to his intercessory duty on earth, and certainly not because there are priests on earth doing both sacrifice and intercession? It would be a complete non-sequitur and make no sense within his overall scenario of Jesus the High Priest.
Likewise: Since the sacrificial duty of offering himself according to you was known to have taken place in the heavens and not on earth, there is simply no thought, opportunity or consideration of him performing this sacrifice on earth. So why would the writer even think of spelling out that he could not have been a priest in regard to his sacrificial duty of offering himself on earth, and certainly not because there are priests on earth performing sacrifices? It would be a complete non-sequitur and make no sense within his overall scenario for Jesus as having offered himself up in the heavens.

In the present tense scenario a reasonable question being answered is this: What role would Jesus have if he NOW came to earth from heaven?
In the past tense scenario a reasonable question being answered is this: What role would Jesus have had in the PAST come to earth from heaven?

Both are valid questions with the same answer: He wouldn't be OR have been a priest because .....
Note that it doesn't say HE WOULDN'T HAVE COME TO EARTH IN THE PAST. His purpose is to discuss the need for Jesus to have acted or to currently act as High Priest on earth, and not whether Jesus had or hadn't come to earth in the past. As such, the LOCATION of a hypothetical ROLE as High Priest on earth applies to either the past role as 'sacrificer' or the current role as 'intercessor'. Both are valid hypotheticals, and all you really have to hold onto is the meaning of the phrase 'something to offer' in verse 3. But I've showed that the meaning is ambiguous.



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Now, I am not sure where you get a count of 12 present tense verses in 8:1-6. Here is my count:

(1) 8:1 – “exomen”…”we have a high priest…” As a reference to the general state of the present situation, the present tense is natural. The following “who sat down at the right hand…” is an aorist (past) tense, since it is referring to a past act of Jesus.
Ok, agree, and he has indicated WHERE that high priest NOW is: Sitting next to God. The verse begins with "Now the main point in what has been said is this:" He's about to say something important: We HAVE such a high priest. The implication is that he is now going to tell the reader the relevancy of this priest in the CURRENT time. The current situation was that priests were still on earth! Yet a new priest is now present, but is in heaven. He's about to answer: What does it all mean?


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(2) 8:2 – there is no present tense in this verse. It refers to Jesus as “a minister” (a noun) in the heavenly sanctuary. What is the time frame of that? It could be related back to the presence of Jesus now in heaven in verse 1, which would imply that Jesus making intercession is somehow performed in the sanctuary. But that is far from clear and it could be a look back at the past sacrifice in the sanctuary as another descriptive of the subject of High Priest introduced in verse 1. Even if the writer is implying that Jesus “intercedes” in the sanctuary rather than by God’s side in the throne room (which doesn’t make a lot of sense, and is not quite compatible with saying that after his sacrifice he sat down at God’s right hand, the point in time at which his intercessory duties commence), such intercession if done within the sanctuary does not include sacrifice of any sort.
There is no suggestion of a past sacrifice in this verse. He is describing the high priest that they NOW have, as a minister in the tabernacle. He doesn't go back and say that he was a minister before he became a high priest. He's talking about the present high priest. A minister is one who serves. He now serves the people with a ministry of intercession. The way I read it Jesus and God are both inside the tabernacle, inside the sanctuary. God didn't get up and walk over and go inside a tabernacle. Jesus didn't walk OUT of the tabernacle when he was done offering himself:

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9:24 For Christ did not enter a holy place made with hands, a mere copy of the true one, but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us;
So, AFAIK he stood in front of God in God's tabernacle in heaven, offered himself, and then sat down and began serving as minister. So verse 2 is just a continuation of the current status of Jesus the new High Priest.


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(3) Verse 3 has a second present tense: “every high priest is appointed to offer gifts and sacrifices…” But as I have said more than once, a present tense here is not only natural, it’s really the only choice, because the writer is speaking of a general situation which continues into the present. That in no way means that to compare Jesus with this general ongoing situation necessarily means that he will be spoken of as offering his own ‘gifts and sacrifices’ in the present, especially when there can be no thought of him doing any such thing. I gave several analogies demonstrating the combination of a general present situation with a specific past situation with which it is being compared.

In verse 3b, there is no verb, literally it reads: “it necessary to have something to offer”. The “to have” is a present infinitive, but like a present participle, it adopts the tense understanding of the verb it is attached to. Unfortunately, that verb is not stated, it is understood. And if the situation clearly points, as verse 3b does, to a past event and only a past event, then the meaning should be understood in the past (the only offering, and the only possible offering, by Jesus took place in the past), and consequently the attached participle or infinitive adopts that understanding.
But verse 3b does not clearly point to a past event as I've shown above. And, a present tense in 3a is NOT the 'only choice': "every high priest has been appointed to offer gifts and sacrifices" works, and even "every high priest was appointed to offer gifts and sacrifices" works in the sense that God himself designated IN THE PAST that all priests offer gifts and sacrifices. is appointed is optional, and if the writer was leading up to a comparison of past events in verse 4, he chose poorly in 3a. And, verse 3b should have been clearly past tense, EVEN IF 3a remain present tense:

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For every high priest is appointed to offer both gifts and sacrifices; so it was necessary that this high priest also have something to offer.
Yet with all of these options available to the writer to make the verse clearly refer to the past in order for 8:4 to be made more clear, what do we have? Two present tense uses: is appointed, and also have. This, on balance, hurts your case and supports my interpretation of 'something to offer' as remaining in the present tense which was established in verse 1 as being 'the main point'.


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(4) Now we get to verse 4. The two “en” verbs are in the imperfect—which in contrafactual situations are ambiguous: they can have a present meaning or a past meaning (Carrier notwithstanding). I have suggested that because this contrafactual is being explained by another ongoing past-into-present situation (the high priests on earth being here and continuing their duties of sacrifice), this pulled the Jesus thought into the imperfect tense rather than the aorist. Here we have another situation in which a present sense representing an ongoing situation (and here the two ‘present’s are not even verbs but present participles, which could even be optionally seen as adopting the same sense as the contrafactual statement, though not necessarily) is found in combination with a past sense referring to a specific past event. Completely natural, again as I illustrated by multiple analogies in past postings. So like verse 3a, the present tense here represents an ongoing situation in regard to the earthly high priests.
8:4a is ambiguous. That's all there is to it. That's why 8:3 is so critical. That's why 'the main point' in 8:1 is critical. But, 8:4b isn't. It is present tense. It didn't have to be. He could have said "he would not have been a priest at all since there WERE already those who offered the gifts according to the Law; 5 who already served a copy". But, he didn't. So far we have NO unambiguous references to the past, even though there have been several opportunities to make them.

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Besides, everything to do with Jesus as a priest has been related by this writer to actions performed in heaven, both sacrifice of his blood and intercession with God. There is no thought introduced anywhere that Jesus did or could perform these duties on earth, and certainly not in the present. Why, then, even think of making such a statement about a present situation? It isn’t even possible theoretically. Ironically, the only time when that could have been conceived was in the past, even though that remains incompatible with locating such activities by Jesus solely in heaven, as the writer has done.
I think it would be perfectly natural for people on earth to wonder about why priests were still operating on earth if Jesus was the new High Priest and why he wasn't down here on earth himself, and just what he is doing up there in heaven while priests are still on earth..It seems to me the author is acknowledging those issues but is more or less saying: Regardless of what is going on down here, he is SUPPOSED to be in heaven, doing what he is doing, and NOT on earth.


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(5) Verse 5’s present tense verb again refers to the ongoing duties of the earthly priests, and is related to a comparison with Moses in the past (combination of past and present senses in one verse…imagine!), but this present tense does nothing to cast light on the question of Jesus.
Yes, but what is present is clear, and the past here was used to explain the present. The readers focus then remains on the present.


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(6) Verse 6’s verb “tetuxen” is actually the perfect tense (“has obtained”) which shows that ongoing past-to-present situation. Like verse 1-2, the writer is now summing up the present status of Jesus: he has received a superior ministry, he is mediator of the new covenant, and that has been founded on the promises of God in scripture. There is nothing there which has to reflect back on the previous remarks about Jesus’ sacrifice or being a priest on earth. You (or Bernard) can’t just point to the existence of present tenses in some cases throughout this paragraph (and they number nowhere near 12) and think that this automatically governs or tells you anything about the meaning of other statements. That is not an argument at all, let alone a strong one. It is not grammatical or literary scholarship. You have to parse the passage, and if you do that you can see that you cannot end up with a present-day understanding for 8:4a.

You said it yourself Earl: In 8:6 he is summing up the present status of Jesus: But this summary began in 8:1:

8:1-2 starts off with the main point of Jesus' current role of High Priest, as a minister in the tabernacle of God. Verse 3 says that just like priests on earth this High Priest has to have something to offer in his ministry. Verse 4-5 talk about why he isn't on earth. And then Verse 6 finally says what he is doing in heaven.

SO, the whole passage reads as though he is discussing Jesus' present role of High Priest. All of the present tense uses (not 12 as I had thought), but ALL of the ones used are consistent with the idea that he is answering this important question:

What is Jesus doing for me NOW?

We'll have to agree to disagree. Thanks for participating.
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Old 02-22-2013, 09:41 PM   #512
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Now that I have responded to Earl about the tenses used in 8:1-6 I am going on self-ban for a while. I have a website-based business I'm trying to start up and this has been getting in the way, so this is necessary. Thanks to all for the interesting comments. Ted
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Old 02-22-2013, 10:43 PM   #513
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Just had to get his last word in before self-banning. Really worthwhile reading, I'm sure.
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Old 02-22-2013, 10:52 PM   #514
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I have a website-based business I'm trying to start up
Who says 'website-based business'? The same people I guess who say 'I know how to use the computer'
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Old 02-23-2013, 08:29 AM   #515
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I can't read this thread anymore. What happened to display mode options on this thread? (Don't bother answering, I can't read it.) I am wondering if there are sub-arguments that can be sparsed out here in new threads? Or just start over?

I know how to use a computer and I have a web-site based business (not really, actually). I do use the internet a lot in my job. You?
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Old 02-23-2013, 06:06 PM   #516
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I have a website-based business I'm trying to start up
Who says 'website-based business'? The same people I guess who say 'I know how to use the computer'
Well, I am an auditor who visits one or two businesses every day. A lot of Cottege Industries sell merchandise via a web page. It used to be called "mail order" when folks actually used the mail to order things from catalogues.

I was at one a week or two ago that sold needlepoint kits (needles, yarn and templates) for hobbyists. Rather than try to sell directly to retail stores, they have a web page from which they make retail and wholesale transactions. Right now they are working from one of the owner's basement.

Another one was importing handicraft items from Asian rim countries and China (she was Taiwanese) selling them from a Web page. I remember their office was full of product. I asked them if they were there to prepare for delivery and they laughed. They were setting up marketing displays to photograph and use as illustrations on their web page.

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Old 02-24-2013, 03:35 AM   #517
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DCHindley:

Your image is copied from the illustration I used for the presentation of "the Witness of Paul" in my Wikipedia article on Arthur Drews.

It represents Paul arguing with Jews, 12th-century champlevé enamel plaque - DISPVUTABAT CV[M] GRECIS (He disputed with the Greeks) REVINCEBAT IV[DEOS] (He refuted the Jews).
The plaque is kept at the V&A Museum in London, and its experts there helped me to correctly decipher the Latin inscriptions.

You've picked the seated head Jew pointing his left index at Paul (facing left in the original plaque). But Paul (facing right) counters with his right index, and in the picture his finger is (most significantly) higher than the Jew's finger.

However, you've reversed the picture of the Jew, so that he is now facing right and shown pointing with his "right" finger.
Noticeable too is the idiotic-looking face of the uncomprehending Greek behind the Jew's shoulder.

This "Witness of Paul" was part III of Arthur Drews "Christ Myth II" (1912), which was translated as "The Witnesses to the Historicity of Jesus" by Joseph McCabe. All the fundamental ides of Doherty as expressed in his initial "Jesus Puzzle" article of Fall 1997 were borrowed from Arthur Drews's two books, "The Christ Myth" (1909) and "The Witnesses to the Historicity of Jesus" (1912) which showed that the initial figure of Jesus was an ideal, mythical figure that never existed on earth.

Doherty supplemented Drews's initial epoch-making presentation with borrowings of all the ideas from the books of G.A. Wells, "The Jesus of the Early Christians" (1971), "Did Jesus Exist?" (1975), and "The Historical Evidence for Jesus" (1982).
The names of Arthur Drews and G.A. Wells were never mentioned once in the article and never revealed as the fundamental sources of those ideas. (Neither was mentioned the famous alleged "B.A. with Distinction in Ancient History and Classical Languages", which appeared on p. ix of "Neither God nor Man'' in 2009, and led some to speculate that this BA could have been obtained in the 1999-2009 decade).

This "Doherty silence", a key piece in the "Doherty Puzzle", was in total violation of historical principles of authentic scholarship. He has not openly identified, at the very outset of his 1997 article and 1999 "Jesus Puzzle" book, the original sources used in his compilation. In Germany this non-disclosure of sources is condemned as an absolute violation of critical scholarship rules and has led to the revocation of Ph.D. diplomas.
Professional historians like R. Joseph Hoffmann have spotted in Doherty's writings the systematic use of the scholarship of G.A. Wells and Arthur Drews.

Contrast this with the real scholarship approach of Arthur Drews. In his Preface to the "Christ Myth", the second word shown is the name of David Strauss, the first page also immediately mentions the contributions of Bruno Bauer and John M. Robertson, and in the first 6 pages, Drews mentions the names of 37 key scholars with a short description of their significant contributions to the subject.

No wonder that practically all professional scholars have preferred to stay away from Doherty's writings altogether. Since 2009, no thorough, complete, critique has been presented by any academic scholar.
The only tentative reviews I could find were some fragmented comments by two well-informed amateurs, Bernard Mulller's own site, and the 4-part, 34,000-word review by GakuseiDon on his own "Homepage" site.

By comparison, when Arthur Drews published his Christ Myth back in 1909, a tidal wave of nearly 80 scholars worldwide published violently negative reactions, the bulk until 1914, resuming after 1918 until WWII, and a small trickle afterwards. (As established by Peter De Mey, a professor of "Systematic Theology" at the Catholic Un. of Leuven, Belgium, in a comprehensive paper "On Rereading the Christ Myth Theological Debate", ca. 2004, which has exhaustively tabulated the extraordinary number of refutations by "fundamental" academic scholars and theologians in Germany, Britain, the USA, and France, selected from the immensity of the literature sparked off worldwide by Arthur Drews's Christ Myth.)

So, why is Doherty wasting his time discussing with amateurs on interesting, but still obscure sites unknown by the wide public?
Who cares about his childish analogies like sugar is sugar, salt is salt, and both are white stuff? Who wants to be reminded that if it sounds like a duck, if it walks like a duck, hey guys, you've guessed it, it's a duck. What powerful analogies which might even bore a high-school student! Who wants to remember comparisons of GakuseiDon with Hamas, and even better, with Hitler?

Which scholars are going to put up with this kind of childish rhetoric?
Doherty convinced himself that he's made important discoveries that have escaped the attention of 2,000 years of biblical studies and tries to convince the vast ignorant public.
Then why does he not start a real discussion with the professional experts, who have spent all their lives since their late teens, studying all the texts of antiquity?

Since he claims extraordinary novel findings, why has Doherty never addressed the community of scholars in articles for the professional journals like Classical Philology (Un. of Chicago) or The Classical Review (Cambridge Un.). There are about 100 trained scholars with published (or in publication) books on Hebrews. They're just waiting to lay their hands on any article by Doherty on the subject of Hebrews 8:4.
For failure of raising his voice in professional journals, this has condemned Doherty's claimed findings to remain on the fringe of established scholarship.

Professional scholars don't want to touch Doherty's writings. Truth be told, there is nothing unusual in this attitude.
Professional scholars, as a rule, stay prudently away from fringe ideas coming from amateurs outside their professional field, who usually pass as popularizers catering to the unlearned public, and nearly always carry a claim of some sensational breakthrough.

It's not worth the scholars' time — refutation is useless when dealing with fanatical amateurs convinced of the supremacy of their "findings" ("I AM THE LEADING JESUS MYTHICIST OF THE WESTERN WORLD") — nor the aggravation from cultish followers happy to find another object of enthusiasm and who fall passionately in love with the new-fangled ideas.
It's a futile, exhausting, and unrewarding, task to try to rectify the warped conceptions of an untrained public.
Scholars, wisely, prefer to watch from the sidelines and not get involved. They save their powder for articles in the peer-reviewed journals where the real debate is going on, among a community of top experts.

Look at Hebrews 8:4, discussed here. It took 9 pages of Doherty's "Neither God nor Man" to explain his version of his reading, that is 4,700 words, plus 6 notes of 1,100 words for a total of 5,800 words (including the puerile tales of a 1888 visit to Paris Expo, the Ron Reagan presidency, and the hair-in-the-soup tale of "Bob & Jim"). In his discussion in January 2013 with Jake and Hermann Detering on the JesusMysteries site, another few thousand words. In this thread right here, probably tens of thousands of words more.
Who is seriously going to believe that understanding this simple verse of 8:4 in Antiquity required so many mental gymnastics and acrobatics to make sense of ten words?
Hebrews is only 7,300 words, but Doherty's explanations in his articles cover 66,400 words, and still the world has not got it.

So who in his right mind is going ever to tackle all the digressions and verbosity of the 444,000 words in "Neither God nor Man"? Nobody, ever.
Bart Ehrman, who is a diligent researcher, and can enjoy the assistance of a team of undergraduate and graduate students to help him, panicked at the immensity of having to deal with all the twists of what Doherty call "logic" in his latest book (and which I feel is only the application of Irish gabbing and blarney equipped with dictionaries and grammars to prolong the discussion until the cows go home and everybody drops of exhaustion or drowned by his opening the gates to his famous "Flow of a collapsed reservoir".)

Bart throws up his hands, in his evaluation of "Neither God nor Man, which he dismisses as a quagmire of unfounded speculations:

"It is an 8oo-page book that is filled with so many unguarded and undocumented statements and claims, and so many misstatements of fact, that it would take a 2,400-page book to deal with all the problems...Not a single early Christian source supports Doherty's claim that Paul and those before him thought of Jesus as a spiritual, not a human being, who was executed in the spiritual, not the earthly realm." (Bart Ehrman, Did Jesus Exist?, p. 252 -58)

And Bart is probably not correct. Judging from the tidewater of comments released on Hebrews 8:4, it is clear that 2,400 pages won't do the job. Even 10,000 pages won't do it. This is a loser's game. Doherty is locked in his idiosyncratic "logic" and best is to leave him in there. Anybody wise has better things to do in life. GakuseiDon prudently self-banned, so did TedM, and probably Bernard Muller has already finalized his own presentation. No point in discussing further.

So, what is in store, except the continuation of the same inane, endless game, a sterile discussion leading nowhere? Challenges where the new supreme pope will remain uncontested in his dogmatic mental cell, and all professional academics stay away. Sometimes, the policy of "Das Ignorieren" is the better part of valor and the safeguard to sanity.
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Old 02-24-2013, 09:10 AM   #518
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Originally Posted by Roo Bookaroo View Post
...Bart throws up his hands, in his evaluation of "Neither God nor Man, which he dismisses as a quagmire of unfounded speculations:

"It is an 8oo-page book that is filled with so many unguarded and undocumented statements and claims, and so many misstatements of fact, that it would take a 2,400-page book to deal with all the problems...Not a single early Christian source supports Doherty's claim that Paul and those before him thought of Jesus as a spiritual, not a human being, who was executed in the spiritual, not the earthly realm." (Bart Ehrman, Did Jesus Exist?, p. 252 -58)...
Please, please, please!!! You ought to know that Bart Ehrman himself made many mis-statements of facts in "Did Jesus Exist"?

Examine "Did Jesus Exist"? page 180 by Bart Ehrman.
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To begin with, even though the Gospels are among the best attested books from the ancient world, we are regrettably hindered in knowing what the authors of these books originally wrote.
Bart Ehrman is a disaster far worse than Doherty. Ehrman cannot be trusted.

Examine page 182 of "Did Jesus Exist"? by Bart Ehrman.
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It is absolutely true, in my judgment, the New Testament aacounts of Jesus are filled with discrepancies and contradictions in matters both large and small.
Examine page 184 of "Did Jesus Exist"? by Bart Ehrman.
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It is true that the Gospels are riddled with other kinds of historical problems and that they relate accounts that almost certainly did not happen...
In the very same chapter of the very same book, Ehrman blatantly contradicts himself.

Ehrman knew that it was completely erroneous that the Gospels are well attested and even claimed that many events in the Gospels did NOT happen or were implausible in the very same chapter.

In fact, not one account of Jesus of Nazareth has been attested by a single non-apologetc writer.

The Gospels are NOT attested at all in their accounts of Jesus of Nazareth and are sometimes internally contradictory.

Ehrman cannot be trusted. We only needed a couple words to describe Ehrman. Ehrman is NOT credible.
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Old 02-24-2013, 09:25 AM   #519
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Originally Posted by Roo Bookaroo View Post
DCHindley:

Your image is copied from the illustration I used for the presentation of "the Witness of Paul" in my Wikipedia article on Arthur Drews.

N/A



Interesting post, thank you
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Old 02-24-2013, 12:05 PM   #520
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Once again, Roo has subjected us to another round of his verbal diarrhea against me. (I think he has simply reprinted one of his many “comments” attached to an Amazon review.) I think by now he has convinced all of us that he suffers from some personal anti-Doherty derangement, the source of which is too buried in his psyche for us to understand. Fine. But I have to call him on two of his longstanding accusations.

First, I took absolutely nothing from Arthur Drews. I did not even read one of his books (and it’s to date the only one) until my research was well advanced and I had already written much Jesus Puzzle material. Whether he is willing to believe this I don’t give a crap. It is also the reason why I did not have any occasion to acknowledge Drews in any “disclosure” of my sources or inspiration.

As for G. A. Wells, it is absolute nonsense to think (as Hoffmann accused me as well) that I have simply copycatted Wells when we disagree on the most fundamental interpretation of Paul and the location of his Christ Jesus’ sacrifice. I broke entirely new ground over Wells and even any other previous mythicist. (If Roo or anyone else chooses to adopt the stance that new ideas deserve rejection simply because they are new, they are only demonstrating their intellectual vacuity.) I have pointed this out before, but he refuses to even acknowledge it and continues to repeat his false accusation. Anyway, just about every mythicist writing today owes some kind of debt to Wells, since he was the primary if not only writer on this subject for decades in the latter half of the 20th century (and I do acknowledge him on some minor points). So this too is a pile of crap from Roo.

The other complaint is that he not only takes statements of mine out of context, he alters them to make them sound as bad as he can make them. A good example (and it’s not the only one) is in the above posting:

"I AM THE LEADING JESUS MYTHICIST OF THE WESTERN WORLD"

He puts this in quotation marks, deliberately falsifying what I said, because I did not say this. He puts it in caps to create an image of some wild-eyed fanatic. I never used the phrase “of the western world”, I never made the Johannine declaration that “I AM the leading Jesus mythicist…” I said that I was regarded or acknowledged as.... I was reporting a general outlook by many mythicists, which automatically does not include mainstream biblical scholarship, who generally regard mythicists as cranks. That goes without saying. And I don’t care if a thousand scholars have published commentaries on Hebrews and overlooked the real meaning of 8:4 (though Ellingworth recognized with some trepidation its grammatical possibility). None of them have attempted any rebuttal to my analysis of it (and that includes Ehrman, McGrath, Casey and Hoffmann), and the few who have attempted them here on FRDB have failed miserably. (Ted’s latest attempt before departing was pathetic, and had been previously answered more than once.)

Roo has made a career out of misrepresenting and outright lying about what I say and what I claim. As I said, he suffers from some kind of dispositional aberration toward me, one far outdoing anything displayed by any other opponent, from Jeffrey Gibson to Hoffmann & Co. I urge him to seek psychiatric help.

Neil Godfrey has called him on much of this stuff in the comments to Roo’s reviews on Amazon, but to no avail. It is a scandal that Amazon allows this kind of endless vituperation against one of their authors and publishers (and I’ve complained about it to them, also to no avail). It is also questionable that FRDB allows it, especially when they say they are seeking a higher road in discussion. But I should also be allowed to call a spade a spade in defence of myself. I have used these words before here on FRDB in regard to Roo, and I will assume I will be allowed to say them again: the man is disturbed, and he is a weasel, pure and simple.

Earl Doherty
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