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Old 08-26-2005, 09:15 AM   #201
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
I didn't say he was "breaking a promise", but OBVIOUSLY is is doing something unjust. Can you justify God's action in punishing ALL serpents, forever, for something THEY did not do?
how do you know they weren't supposed to lose their appendages through some evolutionary advantage? they've been around and quite successful for some time. maybe with legs they would have had to compete with another, more successful species.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You must resort to the "bfniii principle": God is an amoral monster that
God does look that way to us sometimes. but couldn't that be a result of our faulty and limited perception? what standard are you using to call God amoral?

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
we're "not allowed to judge".
sure we're allowed to judge Him. we judge Him differently. so who is correct?

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
It gets even worse if you imagine that Satan is responsible, and merely "took the form" of a serpent (a much later Christian apologetic that is entirely unsupported in Genesis). If I carried out a crime while using a fake passport identifying me as your brother, and the authorities find out: would they be justified in punishing every future descendant of yours forever by surgical removal of their limbs?
not according to deut 24:16
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Old 08-26-2005, 10:09 AM   #202
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Alexander did not overthrow the nation-state of Tyre. Nobody did. About two centuries previously, Tyre had already been peacefully absorbed into the Persian Empire.

this would lend support to tyre having lost it's national identity once nebuchadnezzar deported the monarcy. whatever was left was dissipated by the persians and alexander.
You seem to be confusing the Babylonians with the Persians here. Tyre survived Nebuchadnezzar, and was peacefully absorbed into another empire, without military conquest. Tyre was never destroyed by "the armies of many nations".
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All that Alexander achieved was the temporary sacking of the city, which was rebuilt.

so basically he swept away whatever was left. after that, tyre was completely different than it had been before (new buildings, new people, etc).
Nope, many of the same buildings and people. 15,000 people escaped to Sidon and then returned, and Alexander is described as destroying "half" the city. Which soon recovered, in defiance of the prophecy.

The prophecy failed.
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I didn't say he was "breaking a promise", but OBVIOUSLY is is doing something unjust. Can you justify God's action in punishing ALL serpents, forever, for something THEY did not do?

how do you know they weren't supposed to lose their appendages through some evolutionary advantage? they've been around and quite successful for some time. maybe with legs they would have had to compete with another, more successful species.
Again, you really need to READ THE BOOK at some point. This was punishment. Indeed, you have even admitted this!

Do you remember this exchange?
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And why did he punish the snake for convincing Eve to do it?

that seems rather obvious; for his part in the drama.
So, it's "rather obvious" that the snake was punished!

And again:
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What?!? The snake helped him to get what he wants, and he punishes it for it?

whether God gets what He wants is irrelevant to the fact that satan precipitated their disobedience. that's why.
You have no problem with the notion that the snake is being punished, EXCEPT when you are directly challenged on the morality of inflicting that same punishment on ALL snakes for the crime of "being impersonated by Satan in the distant past".

You obviously haven't thought through the implications of your own worldview.
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God does look that way to us sometimes. but couldn't that be a result of our faulty and limited perception? what standard are you using to call God amoral?
The problem is that YOUR twisting of what is actually a perfectly straightforward "just-so story" renders the Biblical God utterly incomprehensible to anyone (including yourself). Ironically, all this twisting is in order to preserve a belief in "Biblical inerrancy"! How can you justify altering, and even reversing, the meaning of Biblical verses for this purpose?
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It gets even worse if you imagine that Satan is responsible, and merely "took the form" of a serpent (a much later Christian apologetic that is entirely unsupported in Genesis). If I carried out a crime while using a fake passport identifying me as your brother, and the authorities find out: would they be justified in punishing every future descendant of yours forever by surgical removal of their limbs?

not according to deut 24:16
Would it be "evil" if I did this?

If so: why won't you accept that God is "evil" too, but you simply don't care about that anymore?
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Old 08-26-2005, 10:47 AM   #203
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Originally Posted by Sven
You entirely missed the point. The point is what the text suggests, not what other explanations are still possible.
wouldn't you agree that the text suggests different things to do different people?

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Originally Posted by Sven
What was what like? :huh:
their existence in the garden of eden.

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Originally Posted by Sven
Translation: You think he has another overall plan as stated here in clear words and force-fit your thoughts on the text, although it says the exact opposite.
so we're judging God's entire morality on this one phrase as opposed to the entire bible? the overall plan you suggest isn't based on just one verse.

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Originally Posted by Sven
As are you, since you always can invent another ad-hoc answer. Problem is, it's only a "no-lose" for you - because nobody else falls for this clap-trap.
for some reason you clipped my observation that either way, God gets what He wants. we are going to choose heaven or hell whether we're in the garden of eden or not. your response seems to not address this.

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Originally Posted by Sven
How do you determine this from the OT?
should this be determined from the OT alone?

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Originally Posted by Sven
non sequitur
i take it you know of some other reason for freewill or the notion of morality.

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Originally Posted by Sven
So you claim that god could negate free will, but doesn't choose to?
it would stand to reason that an omnipotent God could create a world devoid of freewill if He so chose.

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Originally Posted by Sven
This raises the interesting question if god does know the future or not. Taken the plain meaning of "omniscience", "omni" should include the future.
i would agree.

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Originally Posted by Sven
We have a clear picture:
(1) A says to B: don't do this
(2) B does it nevertheless
(3) A punishes B

Taken at face value, the most obvious conclusion is that A really did not want B to do it.
if the fall will usher in pain, suffering and death in this life, we shouldn't expect Him to want that.

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Originally Posted by Sven
Again: You think he has another overall plan as stated here in clear words and force-fit your thoughts on the text, although it says the exact opposite.
not this particular text, but the bible as a whole.

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Originally Posted by Sven
We have an even clearer picture now:
(1) A says to B: don't do this
(2) C says to B: do it
(2) B does it because of this
(3) A punishes B and C

How on earth would this make sense if A actually meant: "Please do it"?
as i have said, why should we expect that God would want us to choose an action which has deliterious consequences? He wouldn't. however, God can use this for ultimate good and ultimate justice. this is irrelevant to the fact that satan played a part in the fall and is held accountible. God would have been unjust to allow satan to precipitate the fall of man and go unpunished.

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Originally Posted by Sven
It's not a question of allowing him to do so. It's a question how your story is supposed to make sense!!!!
i understand that it doesn't make sense to you. apparently, the metanarrative is accepted by christians and jews all over the world. i realize you might respond by saying those people are stupid, dogmatic, anachronistic fools. if so, i'm sorry you feel that way.

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Originally Posted by Sven
I'm done with you.
thank you for your time. i'm sorry we couldn't come to terms on some of these issues. i guess we'll agree to disagree.

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Originally Posted by Sven
You just repeat your ridiculous story, which is the exact opposite of what the text says, without providing support for it in any way.
i think the main confusion stems from judging God and His intentions for man solely from this one passage. i think it provides an incomplete picture. you think it's sufficient.
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Old 08-26-2005, 12:29 PM   #204
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
He seems to have skipped several, such as my post #166.
posted.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
On the punishment of people for the crimes of others: rather than trying to argue that God doesn't do that, or that it's nothing more than "natural consequences", we now have the "bfniii principle", that God has a right to do this
it's not so much that He has a "right" to, although He does. it's that pain or suffering is temporary and can be used for ultimate good.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
(despite saying it's wrong for humans to do so)
certainly. that should be self evident.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and we have no right to judge him for it.
we DO have a right to judge Him for it. how accurately we judge Him is in question.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
like the notion that "maybe God does it for a greater good" (which might be the case in specific instances, but seems rather unlikely when applied to verses which declare the punishment of others as a general principle),
unlikely to whom?

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and an ongoing inability to recognize that this is "unjust", as humans understand "justice".
there's no "inability" about it. i fully recognize that God acts contrary to what we often think is just. our concept of justice is limited, flawed, subjective, relative and often irrational.

i have tried to get an answer to this question: in judging the biblical accounts of God's actions and declaring them moral or immoral, what standard are you using?

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
On the Ezekiel prophecy failure: the most straightforward reading of the prophecy is that Nebuchadnezzar was supposed to be the one who would conquer and permanently destroy Tyre,
this is most certainly not the case.

1. there are absolutely no words in ezekiel 26 that specifically designate his actions as being permanent.
2. the reference to nebuchadnezzar is not analogous to the "many nations" cited using the original language
3. by all accounts, nebuchadnezzar destroyed the mainland thus fulfilling verses 7-11, partially fulfilling verses 3-6 and 12 (along with "many nations" later) and deported the monarchy thus fulfilling verse 21.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
It IS possible to read the text somewhat differently, separating Nebuchadnezzar's conquest from Tyre's permanent destruction. This creates TWO prophecy failures where there was previously one: we now have Nebuchadnezzar's failure to conquer Tyre as described in Ezekiel 26:7-11,
the text does not say the word "conquer" or anything like it.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and everyone's failure to permanently destroy the city as described in Ezekiel 26:14, 26:21,
"everyone" is not supposed to destroy the city, God is.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
27:36 and 28:19.
these verses are not referring to the place, but the political establishment.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
After much evasion, we currently have a fantasy that history is wrong and Nebuchadnezzar succeeded,
he did succeed in fulfilling his part.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and a twisting of context to make the "permanent destruction" refer to the kingdom of Tyre rather than the city (unsupportable for three reasons: the language plainly refers to buildings,
not ALL of the language as i have shown.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
the kingdom was never overthrown by conquest,
the chapter does not imply specifically that this is the only method by which tyre would fall. the main point heralded in verse 3 is that God is "against thee". there is no "tyre will fall because of conquest".

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and the later verses refer to merchants lamenting the permanent demise of Tyre as a trading port).
which verses?

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
There's also the child-sacrifice issue. In Exodus 22:29, firsborn children are included in stuff ritually devoted to God (along with first fruits etc),
the word used, nathan, has nothing to do with ritual sacrifice. therefore, this verse does not advocate ritual sacrifice.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and Leviticus 27:28-29 describes the fate of stuff that's ritually devoted to God: humans, in particular, must be killed (no exceptions).
the question is which humans? there are two groups referred to.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and a false claim that the Leviticus 27:28-29 sacrifices "entered into an agreement"
that's the first group mentioned.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
(they plainly did not, as OTHERS are responsible for "devoting" humans and livestock).
now you're referring to the second group mentioned in the second half of verse 28; "Anything devoted to destruction is most holy to the LORD." matthew henry notes "The city of Jericho in particular was thus devoted, Jos. 6:17. The inhabitants of Jabesh-Gilead were put to death for violating the curse pronounced upon those who came not up to Mizpeh, Jdg. 21:9, 10."

leviticus does not advocate ritual human sacrifice.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Also, Ezekiel confirms that child-sacrifice happened, and historians know this was a Caananite custom (and that the Jews were Caananites).
what we need here is some support claiming that all hebrews everywhere during biblical times were polytheistic and performed ritual human sacrifice. without such support, such a claim is not entirely correct.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
And then there's the amazing ability of Pharaoh's priests to perform miracles without magic.
celsus records people using similar techniques to produce miracles similar to Jesus'. it's certainly not out of the realm of possibility.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
when Moses started challenging them, the Thera volcanic eruption conveniently started.
the two may have coincided, but that does not preclude that the people of that time knew of other events that could have been leveraged from. you make it out like they were required to start the volcano in order to produce magic. you would need to show that those were the only tricks they knew in order to hold such a position.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Moses transformed his staff into a serpent, and the priests then did the same, exploiting a phenomenon unknown to modern vulcanologists.
but known to other people.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Next, volcanic ash started to turn the Nile into "blood": Moses quickly claimed credit for this (or reproduced the effect with a miracle)
or knew the event was going to happen and leveraged from it.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Next, frogs (presumably driven out of the polluted river): again, unaccountably, Moses decides to adopt or reproduce the impending "miracle".
apparently so.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
The following side-effects of the volcano (darkness, hail, dead cattle, bugs everywhere) Moses claims as his own, even though no miracles were required until the death of the Egyptian firstborn.
that would seemingly be the case.
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Old 08-27-2005, 01:08 PM   #205
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Message to Bfniii: There is not sufficient evidecne that God was good 2,000 years ago, and there is not sufficient TANGIBLE evidence that he is good today.
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Originally Posted by spin
As we are rambling, I must say that it seems meaningless to predicate god with the notion of good. That he cannot be. It's like calling someone tall, just using that person as the only scale.
There is nothing rambling about it. The texts say that Jesus healed people. Is someone who heals people not a good person? There is no evidence that Jesus ever healed anyone, and there is no tangible evidence that God is active in the world today.
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Old 08-27-2005, 01:34 PM   #206
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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
There is nothing rambling about it.
As I perceive it, the thread is all over the place, much of it unrelated to BC&H.

Most of my comment was about the meaninglessness of predicating god with the notion of "good". It doesn't have any content.


spin

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The texts say that Jesus healed people. Is someone who heals people not a good person? There is no evidence that Jesus ever healed anyone, and there is no tangible evidence that God is active in the world today.
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Old 08-29-2005, 07:40 AM   #207
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I already said that I won't discuss this further, only three comments:

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Originally Posted by bfniii
i understand that it doesn't make sense to you. apparently, the metanarrative is accepted by christians and jews all over the world.
Your version? I highly doubt this. This is the first time I've ever heard this ridiculous negation of clear words.

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i realize you might respond by saying those people are stupid, dogmatic, anachronistic fools. if so, i'm sorry you feel that way.
You were wrong. I have no (OK, hardly any) problem at all with people who accept this story as an allegory about the relationship of god&humans. But those people don't negate the clear meaning of words. So there's no reason to call them "stupid, dogmatic, anachronistic fools."


Quote:
i think the main confusion stems from judging God and His intentions for man solely from this one passage. i think it provides an incomplete picture. you think it's sufficient.
Bnfiii: One problem with the bible is (it's obvious to anyone reading it without a preconceived conclusion) that one can read anything into it. Usually, one reads exactly this which one already believes in. So I don't buy your evasion that the entire bible suggests that his plan is what you claim - the entire bible suggests a myriad of different plans if you ask different people.
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Old 08-29-2005, 04:02 PM   #208
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
He failed to fulfil verses 7-11 (except the first two actions described). Why are you imagining that he DID?
because there is no evidence against it. there is no historical account that definitively says anything to the contrary. to say that he didn't execute these actions is speculation that the mainland did not have these attributes. given that the mainland was destroyed, it is more likley that these things did happen.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Tyre's walls, gates and towers, which Nebby beseiged, were not ON the mainland. They were on the island fortress, and he failed to penetrate them.
i guess we agree to disagree. without contradictory evidence, i see no reason to not believe the biblical account. he didn't have to attack the island to fulfill 7-11 and there's no reason to think that he didn't fulfill 7-11 except speculation that the mainland was unable to support such actions.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
As far as I can recall, I have never experienced any pain, suffering or injustice as a consequence of my sins (unless you count hangovers from drinking too much).
let's back up a step. i asked you how we would know we did anything wrong sans consequences in this life. you state that if you don't get caught, there are no consequences. but that doesn't answer the question. you still know that you committed a crime. therefore, you have knowledge of consequences despite the ineffectiveness of the law enforcement. so if there had never been any recompense for wrongs in this life, how would we have any notion of morality?

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
...That he will actively inflict.
maybe indirectly and not without ultimate good. besides, allowing it doesn't mean He enjoys it.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Fascinating. You think doctors deliberately make their treatments painful,
no. but they deliberately inflict painful treatments on people for the good of their health.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and would consider fitting their patients with shock collars
the shock collar analogy was in reference to pets. sometimes pet owners and trainers deliberately inflict pain on their pet to teach them a valuable lesson, one that might save their life in the future.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
if the treatment would otherwise be painless?
that's just it, you assume that there MUST exist a painless treatment. that is the assumption we must address. where do you get your assumption from?

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
And, according to your religion, God is largely responsible for it. But that's OK.
if it:
1. respects our ability to choose
2. is for ultimate good

then yes.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Evolution. Even monkeys have a sense of "fair play".
and when primates commit infanticide or cannibalism? bad analogy.

monkeys aren't analogous because they aren't sentient. they live on instinct. where did our ontological morality come from? i'm talking about the occasional tendancy to overcome the instinct of self preservation to help another or the idea of a greater good or the idea of "fair play". how do we know to recognize it in monkeys? where does our frame of reference come from?

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You have presented no evidence for this "confusion". It seems quite clear to ME. You seem to be admitting that YOU are confused.
let me get this straight; you are judging an alledgedly omniscient and infinte God with a subjective and relative morality, but i'm confused. multiple people on this thread have suggested judging God on one or just a few bible verses which is less than comprehensive.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Translation: YOU can't find any more either.
let's reset. you think that the bible says God is opposed to punishing people for the crimes of others. i pointed out that the 3 verses you cite do not refer to that doctrine. therefore, you don't have any examples of what you claim. furthermore, i have agreed that God allows pain, suffering and death even when we aren't the direct cause.

i then pointed out that deut 24:16 does indeed oppose people judging people for the crimes of others. you say it is a rare example. how many examples do you think the bible should contain to be opposed to it?

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Well, I actually used the word "inflicted". But, yes, the "bfniii principle" implies that you don't have a problem with that, so why bring it up again?
i didn't bring it up. you did. i responded to your claim that God inflicted punishment. i agree God allows suffering. i also agree that the bible opposes people punishing innocent people as outlined in deut 24:16

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Yes, it is.
you assume God:
1. enjoys our suffering
2. has no good reason to allow it
3. we don't deserve it

i have treated each of these assumptions

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Why do you have a problem with simply admitting what you so obviously believe: that YOU DON'T CARE about whether God's actions are "just" or not?
i do care. the reasons are outlined above.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
This was in response to your earlier attempts to pretend that God was "just", and only punished the children of wrongdoers if THEY did something to deserve it: which isn't what the Bible says.
nor is that what i said. i never used the term "only".

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
It would, however, imply that the Bible is lying about WHICH crimes you are being punished for.
no lie at all. the bible plainly elucidates who got punished for what. my point was addressing the fallacy of who deserves what. by what standard are we creating this casuistry?

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Exodus 22:29
which you claim advocates child sacrifice. the word used is "nathan" which has nothing to do with child sacrifice.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
lay to offer the first of thy ripe fruits, and of thy liquors: the firstborn of thy sons shalt thou give unto me" - please explain how ripe fruits and liquors can VOLUNTEER.
i never claimed this verse is about volunteering. that's the leviticus verse.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Leviticus 27:28-29 "Notwithstanding no devoted thing, that a man shall devote unto the LORD of all that he hath, both of man and beast, and of the field of his possession, shall be sold or redeemed: every devoted thing is most holy unto the LORD. None devoted, which shall be devoted of men, shall be redeemed; but shall surely be put to death" - note that "a man" is devoting stuff that HE HAS from his men,
the text does not imply "his men".

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
beasts, and fields. Please explain why a volunteer needs to be "devoted" by another man,
a volunteer is not devoted by another person. that is my point. this verse doesn't refer to human sacrifice or sacrifice of the firstborn.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
how a beast volunteers, and how crops volunteer.
they don't. i didn't claim they did. my claim has been that a person voluntarily enters into a binding agreement by consecrating himself (of man), by devoting his possessions (of beast) or by holding accountible those who committed crimes against israel (anything devoted to destruction). the passage does not necessarily imply that the person is committing to sacrifice another person.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Are you actually unaware of the existence of radiometric dating, the fossil record, tree rings, polar ice layers, varves, records from civilizations unaffected by the Flood, the light from distant stars, the lack of a global sediment line, the lack of water damage of "pre-Flood" archaeological sites, and so forth?
it sounds as if you are characterizing me as young earth. am i correct?

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
As I pointed out, YOU are incorrect. My statement was factually correct: therefore yours was not.
it is? i'm still having trouble finding the words "only because" or "for no other reason".

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You do seem to have some sort of fundamental reading-comprehension problem.
this is after you make up words that aren't there.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You want a quote from a person making such a claim? There's a guy called "bfniii" around here who has said something similar.
still no quote from you supporting your statement that [christian] scholars make baseless claims.

i agree with you. there are all kinds of crazy people out there, christian and non-christian. it's just that your statement is pretty much hurling the elephant in accusing christians. you insult christians because "you have checked out their claims". why not say some christians make baseless claims?

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
...Except that they're not, of course. Again, you seem to have some sort of problem here.
so we disagree. i provided several reasons why they are.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Yes, and some that are Muslims, Scientologists... and rather a lot of atheists too.
so the jews who are still jews disagree with atheist beliefs so athesim is false. you set up the jews who reject Jesus as authorities. consequently, any jews that reject atheism have thus proven atheism is invalid.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Evasion noted (again).
what evasion?! you have tried to appeal to numbers, i called you on it and you can't even admit you made the mistake. simply being a majority doesn't make that group correct. therefore, i have asked you WHY they are correct to which you have avoided posting a response for quite some time now.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Other than "it's just a story", you mean? No, but weren't we discussing the ones which the Egyptian priests allegedly duplicated?
and you have agreed there are natural explanations for them. so we're in agreement that the events can be explained and supported by natural scientific explanations. so the only thing left is to explain the last one.

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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Again, they were. Remember, we're not talking about what the BIBLE claims.
they were? what source are you using that claims all jews from all times have been polytheistic? i'm sure the contemporary monotheistic jews who think their religion originated from yahweh alone would be interested in such information.
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Old 08-30-2005, 07:19 AM   #209
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bfniii:
Quote:
Moses transformed his staff into a serpent, and the priests then did the same, exploiting a phenomenon unknown to modern vulcanologists.

but known to other people.
Uh... you ARE joking, right?

I'm not sure that it's worth continuing to hold a discussion with someone who seriously thinks that volcanoes have a natural ability to turn sticks into snakes. This is way, way out in what Sven referred to as "woowoo-land": a territory I am unfamiliar with.
Quote:
He failed to fulfil verses 7-11 (except the first two actions described). Why are you imagining that he DID?

because there is no evidence against it. there is no historical account that definitively says anything to the contrary. to say that he didn't execute these actions is speculation that the mainland did not have these attributes. given that the mainland was destroyed, it is more likley that these things did happen.

Tyre's walls, gates and towers, which Nebby beseiged, were not ON the mainland. They were on the island fortress, and he failed to penetrate them.

i guess we agree to disagree. without contradictory evidence, i see no reason to not believe the biblical account. he didn't have to attack the island to fulfill 7-11 and there's no reason to think that he didn't fulfill 7-11 except speculation that the mainland was unable to support such actions.
History records that Nebby tried to breach Tyre's walls for 13 years, and failed to do so. If you wish to concoct a fantasy that "Tyre's walls" refers NOT to the massive 150-feet-high walls of the city itself, but to some other set of walls somewhere else: don't you think it would be a good idea to provide some sort of evidence for the existence of such walls?
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...everyone's failure to permanently destroy the city as described in Ezekiel 26:14, 26:21,

"everyone" is not supposed to destroy the city, God is.
God is supposedly going to use the armies of "many nations" to do so. But they (and God) failed anyhow.
Quote:
27:36 and 28:19.

these verses are not referring to the place, but the political establishment.
No, the preceding verses refer to Tyre's riches and merchandise in the past tense. Tyre's wealth will pass: except that it did NOT pass when Tyre was absorbed into the Persian empire.
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...and a twisting of context to make the "permanent destruction" refer to the kingdom of Tyre rather than the city (unsupportable for three reasons: the language plainly refers to buildings,

not ALL of the language as i have shown.

the kingdom was never overthrown by conquest,


the chapter does not imply specifically that this is the only method by which tyre would fall. the main point heralded in verse 3 is that God is "against thee". there is no "tyre will fall because of conquest".

and the later verses refer to merchants lamenting the permanent demise of Tyre as a trading port).

which verses?
Ezekiel 26:14 And I will make thee like the top of a rock: thou shalt be a place to spread nets upon; thou shalt be built no more: for I the LORD have spoken it, saith the Lord GOD.

Ezekiel 26:19 For thus saith the Lord GOD; When I shall make thee a desolate city, like the cities that are not inhabited; when I shall bring up the deep upon thee, and great waters shall cover thee.

...These verses describe physical destruction, the obliteration of the city: followed by the description of Tyre's fall as a mercantile power, as previously mentioned. Neither Nebby nor Alexander did this.
Quote:
As far as I can recall, I have never experienced any pain, suffering or injustice as a consequence of my sins (unless you count hangovers from drinking too much).

let's back up a step. i asked you how we would know we did anything wrong sans consequences in this life. you state that if you don't get caught, there are no consequences. but that doesn't answer the question. you still know that you committed a crime. therefore, you have knowledge of consequences despite the ineffectiveness of the law enforcement. so if there had never been any recompense for wrongs in this life, how would we have any notion of morality?
There is no evidence of any supernatural recompense, and none is required to explain human morality: we are social animals shaped by biological and social evolution.
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Fascinating. You think doctors deliberately make their treatments painful,

no. but they deliberately inflict painful treatments on people for the good of their health.

and would consider fitting their patients with shock collars

the shock collar analogy was in reference to pets. sometimes pet owners and trainers deliberately inflict pain on their pet to teach them a valuable lesson, one that might save their life in the future.

if the treatment would otherwise be painless?

that's just it, you assume that there MUST exist a painless treatment. that is the assumption we must address. where do you get your assumption from?
An omnipotent doctor would make ALL treatments painless. Where the pain is supposed to teach something, that lesson could be imparted painlessly by telepathically placing the information in the subject's brain.

On injustice and suffering:
Quote:
And, according to your religion, God is largely responsible for it. But that's OK.

if it:
1. respects our ability to choose
2. is for ultimate good

then yes.
I see you still have some vestiges of humanity left, you're having trouble swallowing your own "bfniii principle". The punishment of children for the crimes of their parents isn't something that "respects their ability to choose".

On justice:
Quote:
and where did the idea behind the word come from?

Evolution. Even monkeys have a sense of "fair play".

and when primates commit infanticide or cannibalism? bad analogy.

monkeys aren't analogous because they aren't sentient. they live on instinct. where did our ontological morality come from? i'm talking about the occasional tendancy to overcome the instinct of self preservation to help another or the idea of a greater good or the idea of "fair play". how do we know to recognize it in monkeys? where does our frame of reference come from?
Why are you asking me to answer this question twice?

EVOLUTION.

We evolved as social animals. We have this instinct to preserve our species.
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You have presented no evidence for this "confusion". It seems quite clear to ME. You seem to be admitting that YOU are confused.

let me get this straight; you are judging an alledgedly omniscient and infinte God with a subjective and relative morality, but i'm confused. multiple people on this thread have suggested judging God on one or just a few bible verses which is less than comprehensive.
No, I'm judging a God allegedly created (in their image) by primitive tribesmen, and revised over the centuries. I find that it makes sense, given the context. I don't find it confusing.
Quote:
Translation: YOU can't find any more either.

let's reset. you think that the bible says God is opposed to punishing people for the crimes of others. i pointed out that the 3 verses you cite do not refer to that doctrine. therefore, you don't have any examples of what you claim. furthermore, i have agreed that God allows pain, suffering and death even when we aren't the direct cause.

i then pointed out that deut 24:16 does indeed oppose people judging people for the crimes of others. you say it is a rare example. how many examples do you think the bible should contain to be opposed to it?
Again, you seem to be struggling with your own "bfniii principle" here.

It's your struggle: your religion versus your conscience. I'll leave you to it.

On Exodus 22:29 and Leviticus 27:28-29:
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- please explain how ripe fruits and liquors can VOLUNTEER.

i never claimed this verse is about volunteering. that's the leviticus verse.
Nowhere in EITHER verse is "volunteering" mentioned.
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they don't. i didn't claim they did. my claim has been that a person voluntarily enters into a binding agreement by consecrating himself (of man), by devoting his possessions (of beast) or by holding accountible those who committed crimes against israel (anything devoted to destruction). the passage does not necessarily imply that the person is committing to sacrifice another person.
ALL men devoted must be sacrificed. NONE may be redeemed. Therefore this includes enemies as you describe, but must ALSO include the firstborn: as they, too, are men devoted to God.
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Are you actually unaware of the existence of radiometric dating, the fossil record, tree rings, polar ice layers, varves, records from civilizations unaffected by the Flood, the light from distant stars, the lack of a global sediment line, the lack of water damage of "pre-Flood" archaeological sites, and so forth?

it sounds as if you are characterizing me as young earth. am i correct?
That is the Biblical position. But OEC "day-age" apologetics won't move the Flood date.
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As I pointed out, YOU are incorrect. My statement was factually correct: therefore yours was not.

it is? i'm still having trouble finding the words "only because" or "for no other reason".

You do seem to have some sort of fundamental reading-comprehension problem.

this is after you make up words that aren't there.
No, that appears to be what YOU are doing.

You wish that there were other reasons. You wish this so desperately that, when I point out that only one reason is stated, you accuse me of being "incorrect" because the text of Genesis will not rearrange itself to conform with your wish.

ONLY ONE REASON IS STATED. That is a simple FACT, easily verified by reading the book.

Any OTHER reasons exist only within your own imagination. They are not STATED.

On Jewish rejection of Jesus:
Quote:
Evasion noted (again).

what evasion?! you have tried to appeal to numbers, i called you on it and you can't even admit you made the mistake. simply being a majority doesn't make that group correct. therefore, i have asked you WHY they are correct to which you have avoided posting a response for quite some time now.
I have already explained WHY the Jews (most of them) are more probably correct: because it's reasonable to suppose that they understand THEIR religion.

You're still not providing me with an explanation of what YOU think the reason is that most Jews reject Christianity. What do YOU think their "problem" is, exactly?
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what source are you using that claims all jews from all times have been polytheistic? i'm sure the contemporary monotheistic jews who think their religion originated from yahweh alone would be interested in such information.
I have never claimed that ALL Jews from ALL times have been polytheistic: only that the religion was ORIGINALLY polytheistic. YHWH was one of the sons of EL (traditionally 70 in number), and had a consort named Asherah (a.k.a. Ashtoreth). This is well-known.
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Old 08-30-2005, 07:41 AM   #210
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Default Biblical errors

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
Allowing evil to exist does not make God evil. In fact, I submit that evil is necessary in order for us to comprehend good.
Allowing things like the Bubonic Plague, the recent tsunami in Asia and Hurricane Katrina DOES make God evil according to every modern standard of law and common decency. No loving human father would allow such things to happen to his children. Parents are bound by law to protect their children. In addition, no loving human father would allow such things to happen to his children without explaining to them IN PERSON why he allowed them to happen. I am not at all opposed to the notion of a loving God disciplining mankind, but MOST CERTAINLY NOT the way that he supposedly does so all because Adam and Eve supposedly ate some forbidden fruit.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
If I can figure that out, certainly God is aware of it. It seems the difference is that allowing evil is indirect as opposed to being the direct source of evil like Satan or our own actions. I understand that ultimately God is responsible for having created all things, but that doesn't change the previous point.
If the God of the Bible exists, it is a fact that he created natural disasters and a host of other awful things.

There isn't any evidence at all that God is good today in noticeably tangible ways that can directly be attributed to him, or that he ever was good in noticeably tangible ways that could have been directly attributed to him.

The texts say that Jesus provided tangible proof that he had supernatural powers, and that after Jesus had died and the Holy Spirit had come to the Church, the disciples still went about confirming "the message of his grace" with signs and wonders. It is a fact that there is much more need today of confirming "the message of his grace" with noticeably tangible signs and wonders than was the case back then with the supposed presence of a veritable plethora of eyewitnesses who could offer first hand accounts of miracles.

In short, ANY Christian would prevent natural disasters from occuring if he were able to do so, and ANY Christian would be quite pleased if God provably prevented ALL natural disasters from occuring.

If God's thoughts and ways are actually different from our own thoughts and ways, even if he does not wish to explain himself more fully at this time, it is only fair that tell us that himself IN PERSON, not through human proxies claiming that they are speaking for him. The writers of all relgious books claim that they are speaking for a variety of Gods. Why don't you believe what they claim? What problem do you have with Deism?




























Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
allowing evil to exist does not make God evil. in fact, i submit that evil is necessary in order for us to comprehend good. if i can figure that out, certainly God is aware of it. it seems the difference is that allowing evil is indirect as opposed to being the direct source of evil like satan or our own actions. i understand that ultimately God is responsible for having created all things, but that doesn't change the previous point.



satan, lucifer, had freewill just like we do. therefore, there is no "point" to having an intermediary. lucifer chose the role that he now occupies. again, God may have allowed and even foreseen this circumstance. but that doesn't obviate the freewill involved.

i appreciate your questions. most of the time i get lambasted for suggesting that there is reasonable information contrary to what is supported by non-christians.
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