Freethought & Rationalism Archive

Soul Invictus · 08-01-2007, 08:45 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Minimalist

In the context of the quote (and bearing in mind that the inscription is in execrable condition) it is referring to two kings defeated and killed by the
Aramaeans.

Thanks for that bit of information.

Quote:

So when it talks of the House of Omri and then the House of David it seems to be a real stretch to suggest that they were talking about someone or something else. The common consensus of archaeologists is that Tel Dan is the only non-biblical reference to any David.

I have a question. Which dates older...the stele or the Biblical books that mention (the House of) David?

Another thought I had was why the significance of a statement about a House of David means anything. It doesn't mean anything based on the Bible's statement, so I don't see why the stele saying it would...or does this suffice from an evidentiary POV?

lpetrich · 08-01-2007, 11:31 PM

The Tel Dan inscription says "bytdwd", "house of David"; Wikipedia has the context of that inscription in

Tel Dan Stele, and notes several theories about what it might mean.

Some of that stele has survived, complete with some context: an Aramaean king bragging about his triumphs over some Israelites, including a king from the "house of David".

So it does not really tell us very much about King David.

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08-01-2007, 11:31 PM	#32
lpetrich Contributor Join Date: Jul 2000 Location: Lebanon, OR, USA Posts: 16,829	The Tel Dan inscription says "bytdwd", "house of David"; Wikipedia has the context of that inscription in Tel Dan Stele, and notes several theories about what it might mean. Some of that stele has survived, complete with some context: an Aramaean king bragging about his triumphs over some Israelites, including a king from the "house of David". So it does not really tell us very much about King David.

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