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Old 04-07-2008, 10:52 PM   #121
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Um Cyrus was also a Mede...
You know that's rubbish.

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...and his general in charge of the expedition against Babylon was also a Mede....so Jeremiah is not a false prophet.
Cite the primary source for this claim.

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1. Greece is seen splitting into four powers. The four headed leopard has four heads, so how can this be the Medes instead of Greece?
The leopard is the prince of Persia (sic). Read Dan 11:1-2, set in the time of "Darius the Mede": "Now I will announce the truth to you. Three more kings shall arise in Persia. So "Darius the Mede" and "three more kings", ie four kings of Persia.

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2. The ram is seen with two horns one rising up later and higher than the other. The bear beast is seen raising itself up on one side...one side higher than the other. So how can this not be Medo-Persia?
The horn that comes later is chronological. The Persians came after the Medes. The bear is Media and after the bear came the leopard, ie Persia.

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3. The goat (Greece) has four horns on one animal. The four horns are said to be of the same kingdom. The ten horns of the 4th beast is said to be of the same kingdom. So why are the two horns (as interpreted by critics) of the ram (Medo-Persia) seperate kingdoms?
You come to this quandary because you are mixing visions.

But you know that the big horn came before the four horns and that the little horn came after them, so there is a chronological order set up in ch.8. The little horn in ch.8 was on the ram and it came out of one of the four.

The fourth beast had ten horns which were kings. If it was the same power, then those kings had to have been one after the other.

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Why are they two kingdoms instead of one?
Because they never were one.

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The goat and 4th beast has multiple kings but yet they are part of the same kingdom, why does this not apply to Medo-Persia as well?
Mixing visions.

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Originally Posted by sugarhitman View Post
4. The ten horns coexist together.
Wrong interpretation, unless you'd like to propose that a kingdom can have ten kings at the same time. Not much of a kingdom.

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The only horn that arises later is the little horn. Greek Syria had a total of 21 or 23 kings.
You are not dealing with when Daniel was written. If it were written in 165 BCE then of course there were 10 kings before Antiochus IV.

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Spin's list of ten kings arosed in chronological order...so his interpretation does not fit the 4th beast kingdom.
You aren't reading the text.

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5. The 4th beast kingdom is divided between 10 kings.
Already dealt with above. The ten kings were of the same kingdom.

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Syria was never divided between 10 kings because they did not coexist together...there was always only a single king in power.
And that fits the evidence as well. You just have some hokey crap about ten contemporaneous kings. Using your logic you have no way of saying that the four beasts themselves were not contemporary. Dan 7:3 says that four beasts came out of the sea. It doesn't say that one came after the other, so obviously they are contemporary. And if you want to grumble about "first", "then", etc, it doesn't change the fact that in 7:3 you see them all together.

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6. The book of Daniel focuses on the Kingdom of God, and the Messiah and opposition of the 4th beast and the horn power to this Messianic figure.
There is no messiah in the text. There are two anointed figures. Even Aaron was anointed. Do you want to call him the messiah?... I thought not.

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Why would Daniel then switch to the horn power opposing "Onias the III."
Your misunderstanding of a Jewish text.

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Is Onias the one who slays the 4th beast at his coming...who is to rule the whole world for eternity?
Nobody ever made such a claim. It's only your willful misunderstanding of Daniel that makes you ask.

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Or is this Messianic person the Davidic Messiah in whom all Jews look forward to?
There is no messiah in Daniel. There are two high priests, Jeshua ben Jehozedek, the anointed prince -- as I've explained a few times now, he was crowned according to Zechariah, hence "anointed prince" -- and Onias III, an anointed one who was cut off. Why don't you ask Jewish scholars about Daniel rather than believing people who have no background in understanding Jewish literature? You can steal the literature, but that doesn't help you understand it.

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Please by all means....teach us.
You are in no state to learn. You have to take your fingers out of your ears first.

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Old 04-08-2008, 03:54 AM   #122
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I see the rest of this has been answered: but this was quite extraordinary!
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Originally Posted by sugarhitman
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Sugarhitman, here is the fact that you keep overlooking.

The author of Daniel relied on Jeremiah, and Jeremiah was a false prophet.

Jeremiah (and Isaiah) falsely prophesied that the MEDES would take (and destroy) Babylon.

This never happened. Persia conquered the Medes, and then took Babylon without destroying it (indeed, it went on to become the biggest city in the world)...

...What part of Jeremiah was a false prophet do you not understand?

Jeremiah promised that the Medes WOULD conquer Babylon alone.
Um Cyrus was also a Mede...and his general in charge of the expedition against Babylon was also a Mede....so Jeremiah is not a false prophet.
Now, quite apart from the fact that "Cyrus was also a Mede..." is made-up claptrap: Jeremiah definitely WAS a false prophet!
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jeremiah
Jeremiah 51:11 Make sharp the arrows; hold firm the shields: Jehovah hath stirred up the spirit of the kings of the Medes; because his purpose is against Babylon, to destroy it: for it is the vengeance of Jehovah, the vengeance of his temple.

Jeremiah 51:26 And they shall not take of thee a stone for a corner, nor a stone for foundations; but thou shalt be desolate for ever, saith Jehovah

Jeremiah 51:29 And the land trembleth and is in pain; for the purposes of Jehovah against Babylon do stand, to make the land of Babylon a desolation, without inhabitant.

Jeremiah 51:37 And Babylon shall become heaps, a dwelling-place for jackals, an astonishment, and a hissing, without inhabitant.

Jeremiah 51:43 Her cities are become a desolation, a dry land, and a desert, a land wherein no man dwelleth, neither doth any son of man pass thereby.

Jeremiah 51:62 and say, O Jehovah, thou hast spoken concerning this place, to cut it off, that none shall dwell therein, neither man nor beast, but that it shall be desolate for ever.

Jeremiah 51:64 and thou shalt say, Thus shall Babylon sink, and shall not rise again because of the evil that I will bring upon her; and they shall be weary. Thus far are the words of Jeremiah.
So, if Jeremiah had NOT been a false prophet: the Medes would have destroyed Babylon, and Daniel (if he had been a real person) would have been slain or forced to flee. So he couldn't possibly have served "Darius the Mede" or "Cyrus the Persian" in the uninhabited ruins of Babylon.
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Old 04-08-2008, 07:59 AM   #123
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Originally Posted by funinspace View Post
:rolling: Having pot and kettle issues? ROTFLMAO You have been avoiding, fearing, dodging the below question since the first page of this thread…
Okay what empires are you talking about. Daniel is only concerned with those empires over Israel.
I find it incredulous that you don’t know what I am talking about. Here are just some of the times I have asked you to explain your usage of the term empire in a consistent manner. It goes beyond talking about Daniel and who ruled over Israel.

http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...19&postcount=6
http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...3&postcount=19
http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...0&postcount=23
http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...5&postcount=28 {This is where I started mentioning the issue as point (4)}
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Originally Posted by funinspace View Post
The Roman empire was over run by several powers during it’s death throws, and was demolished/conquered. As I and others have pointed out several very large empires have risen since then. Also, the Roman Empire has never fulfilled Daniel 7:23 to devour the whole earth, beat it down, and crush it.

(4) If you claim these other empires are just a subset of the Roman empire, then logically the Roman empire is just a subset of the Greek empire. Therefore you do not have your proclaimed 4 kingdoms.
http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...8&postcount=31
http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...7&postcount=46
http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...7&postcount=56

You make everything in Europe and the US as being an out growth (subset) of the Roman Empire to fulfill Daniel 7:23. However, for some mysterious reason you don’t apply the same super generalization of the Roman Empire just being an out growth (subset) of the Greek Empire. Anyone applying your definitions/methodology to defining empires, would see that there was no fourth empire, because it really is just more of the Greek Empire. The Roman empire has far more in common/relation to the Greek Empire, than the US has in relation to the Roman empire (in which you weave your prophetic tales). Therefore your whole Daniel 4 empire construct crumbles on your own very unique way of defining empires.

Conclusion: Your position crumbles on either
(1) There not being 4 empires via your method of defining empires, or
(2) If one accepts a more normative usage of the word empire, your fourth empire (Roman) fails to never fulfilled Daniel 7:23 to “devour the whole earth, beat it down, and crush it”.
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Old 04-09-2008, 07:57 AM   #124
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Originally Posted by sugarhitman View Post

Okay what empires are you talking about. Daniel is only concerned with those empires over Israel.
I find it incredulous that you don’t know what I am talking about. Here are just some of the times I have asked you to explain your usage of the term empire in a consistent manner. It goes beyond talking about Daniel and who ruled over Israel.

http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...19&postcount=6
http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...3&postcount=19
http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...0&postcount=23
http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...5&postcount=28 {This is where I started mentioning the issue as point (4)}
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Originally Posted by funinspace View Post
The Roman empire was over run by several powers during it’s death throws, and was demolished/conquered. As I and others have pointed out several very large empires have risen since then. Also, the Roman Empire has never fulfilled Daniel 7:23 to devour the whole earth, beat it down, and crush it.

(4) If you claim these other empires are just a subset of the Roman empire, then logically the Roman empire is just a subset of the Greek empire. Therefore you do not have your proclaimed 4 kingdoms.
http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...8&postcount=31
http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...7&postcount=46
http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...7&postcount=56

You make everything in Europe and the US as being an out growth (subset) of the Roman Empire to fulfill Daniel 7:23. However, for some mysterious reason you don’t apply the same super generalization of the Roman Empire just being an out growth (subset) of the Greek Empire. Anyone applying your definitions/methodology to defining empires, would see that there was no fourth empire, because it really is just more of the Greek Empire. The Roman empire has far more in common/relation to the Greek Empire, than the US has in relation to the Roman empire (in which you weave your prophetic tales). Therefore your whole Daniel 4 empire construct crumbles on your own very unique way of defining empires.

Conclusion: Your position crumbles on either
(1) There not being 4 empires via your method of defining empires, or
(2) If one accepts a more normative usage of the word empire, your fourth empire (Roman) fails to never fulfilled Daniel 7:23 to “devour the whole earth, beat it down, and crush it”.


The Grecian empire was completely of the Greeks. The Roman empire was of Latins and the Germanic peoples as well as the Greeks. If im not mistaken the Greek empire did not extend that far into Europe whereas the Romans did. This is what seperates these two empires.

Rome recruited a large number of Germanic peoples into their armies, and these people later took over the empire. The Germanic peoples have been in control of Europe since then. France, England, Germany, Denmark, Russia, America and a host of other European countries are dominated by the Germanic tribes.


And certainly through empires like the British, and America they have indeed devoured the whole earth with Russia (that is subjugated rest of the nations). Both America and England are dominated by the same people who dominated Rome...The Germanic peoples. Even Russia was founded by a Germanic tribe the Anglo-Saxons....the Vikings.


The Greeks, the Slavs, Turks, Germanic, and Latin (itallian?) people basically the Europeans, have since the Days of Rome have been the dominant peoples. All of the modern empires have been established by them....but the Germanic peoples remain dominant....the Roman empire fell into the hands of these people who through the years have tried to revive the empire. The European empires that followed are indeed subsets of the Roman empire.
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Old 04-09-2008, 09:03 AM   #125
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The Grecian empire was completely of the Greeks.
First thank you for directly responding to my question. Well, every peoples tend to be of older groupings and influenced by others. However, for the sake of argument, we can start here.

Quote:
The Roman empire was of Latins and the Germanic peoples as well as the Greeks. If im not mistaken the Greek empire did not extend that far into Europe whereas the Romans did. This is what seperates these two empires.
This is where I see you getting off the mark. Let’s stay with the early centuries of the Roman Empire’s emergence (like the first 5 hundred years 800-300BC). Wouldn’t this certainly be the defining period of who/what is Roman? Germanic peoples were not part of the early empire. And Greek influence is tremendous. Here is just a small sampling of Greek influence on Rome.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Founding_of_Rome
Quote:
Between the 10th and 8th centuries BC, the population of central Italy consisted of two main groups of Italic peoples, the Osco-Umbri and Latins. Latium Vetus was the ancient territory of the Latins (now southern Lazio). Nearby were the Volscians, Sabines, Aequi, Rutuli, and Ausonians. North of Rome were the non-Indo-European Etruscans.

Below is some information on the emergence of the Roman empire and how Greece gave the Romans their gods, reading and writing, and even were settlers all over the Italian peninsula:

http://www.roman-empire.net/founding/found-index.html
Quote:
Add to this the influence of the Greeks who were settling southern Italy, founding cities like Cumea and Tarentum, bringing advanced civilization to the country, and you have a place with lots of potential. From the Greeks the Romans learnt fundamental skills such as reading and writing, even their religion is almost entirely derived from Greek mythology. i.e. for Jupiter write Zeus, Mars is Ares, Venus is Aphrodite, etc... If the Greeks settled to the south of them, then the Roman had the Etruscans to the north. Etruria was predominantly an urban society, drawing its considerable wealth from seaborne trade. The extravagant Etruscans were generally seen by the more hardy Romans to be decadent and weak. While being distinctly unique in their own right, the Etruscans too owed much of their culture to the Greeks.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magna_Graecia
Quote:
Magna Græcia (Latin for "Greater Greece," Megalê Hellas/Μεγάλη Ἑλλάς in Greek) is the name of the area in Southern Italy and Sicily that was colonised by Greek settlers in the eighth century BC, who brought with them the lasting imprint of their Hellenic civilization.
<snip>
With this colonization, Greek culture was exported to Italy, in its dialects of the Ancient Greek language, its religious rites and its traditions of the independent polis. An original Hellenic civilization soon developed, later interacting with the native Italic and Latin civilisations. The most important cultural transplant was the Chalcidean/Cumaean variety of the Greek alphabet, which was adopted by the Etruscans;
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Etruscans
Quote:
As distinguished by its own language, the civilization endured from an unknown prehistoric time prior to the foundation of Rome until its complete assimilation to Italic Rome in the Roman Republic.
<snip>
Culture that is identifiably and certainly Etruscan developed in Italy after about 800 BC approximately over the range of the preceding Iron Age Villanovan culture. The latter gave way in the seventh century to a culture that was influenced by Greek traders and Greek neighbors in Magna Graecia, the Hellenic civilization of southern Italy.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roman_R...unding_of_Rome
Quote:
It is likely that the Romans first came in contact with Greek civilization through the Greek city-states in southern Italy and in Sicily (both of which formed Magna Graecia — "Greater Greece"). These colonies had been established as a result of Greek expansion that took place in these two areas beginning in the eighth century BC. There is a remarkable commonality between the world of classical Athens and the classical world of Magna Graecia.
This, in as much as trading, as well as the mere day to day interaction between peoples of different cultures, provided opportunities for the Romans to gain exposure to Greek culture, literature, architecture, political and philosophical ideas, religious beliefs and traditions. There was a great sharing of ideas and culture among the peoples of the Mediterranean Sea while Rome was developing into the dominant power in the area.
The Latin alphabet was certainly influenced by the Greek alphabet, and the Latin language itself contains many words of Greek origin. Latin literature was also influenced by the Greeks as well. Early Latin plays were sometimes translations of Greek plays, and different types of poetry often were modeled after their counterparts, such as Virgil's Aeneid on the Homeric Epics. It was not uncommon for wealthy Romans to send their sons to Greece for the purpose of study, most notably in Athens. This Roman passion of Hellenic culture would increase over time.
<snip>
From the earliest days of the Republic, foreign gods were imported, especially from Greece, which had a great cultural influence on the Romans. In addition, the Romans connected some of their indigenous deities with Greek gods and goddesses.

http://history-world.org/rome.htm
Quote:
Both Greeks and Romans were offshoots of a common Indo-European stock, and settlement of the Greek and Italian peninsulas followed broadly parallel stages. Between 2000 and 1000 B.C., when Indo-European peoples invaded the Aegean world, a western wing of this nomadic migration filtered into the Italian peninsula, then inhabited by indigenous Neolithic tribes. The first invaders, skilled in the use of copper and bronze, settled in the Po valley. Another wave of Indo-Europeans, equipped with iron weapons and tools, followed; in time the newer and older settlers intermingled and spread throughout the peninsula. One group, the Latins, settled in the plain of Latium, in the lower valley of the Tiber River.

For ages history had bypassed the western Mediterranean, but it was soon to become an increasingly significant area. During the ninth century B.C. the Etruscans, a non-Indo-European people who probably came from Asia Minor, brought the first city-state civilization to Italy. Expanding from the west coast up to the Po valley and south to the Bay of Naples, the Etruscans organized the backward Italic peoples into a loose confederation of Etruscan-dominated city-states. After 750 B.C. Greek colonists migrated to southern Italy and Sicily, where they served as a protective buffer against powerful and prosperous Carthage,
<snip>
Roman Conquest Of Italy

Soon after ousting their Etruscan overlords in 509 B.C., Rome and the Latin League, composed of other Latin peoples in Latium, entered into a
defensive alliance against the Etruscans. This new combination was so successful that by the beginning of the fourth century B.C. it had become the chief power in central Italy.
<snip>
The Latin League grew alarmed at Rome's increasing strength, and war broke out between the former allies. With Rome's victory in 338 B.C., the
League was dissolved, and the Latin cities were forced to sign individual treaties with Rome
http://www.bestofsicily.com/mag/art153.htm
Quote:
Beginning around 800 BC (BCE), following several centuries of sporadic contact with Sicily's smaller islands and coastal areas, the Greeks began what is now considered the first mass colonization of Sicily and southern peninsular Italy. As Magna Graecia (Megara Hellas), this region eventually became home to more Greeks than Greece itself.
<snip>
Greek society was influenced by the cultures of the eastern Mediterranean (particularly the Assyrians, Babylonians and Egyptians). In turn, Greek culture evolved and influenced ancient Roman society --at least as much so as the Etruscans. Greek art and philosophy, the foundation upon which much of Roman culture was built, came to dominate the Mediterranean world for centuries,
Quote:
Rome recruited a large number of Germanic peoples into their armies, and these people later took over the empire. The Germanic peoples have been in control of Europe since then. France, England, Germany, Denmark, Russia, America and a host of other European countries are dominated by the Germanic tribes.
The Germanic peoples, as I have shown above, were not the party to the creation of the Roman Empire. You have stretched the imagination to make the US and others inheritor’s of the Roman Empire, while the Greek influence and later absorption of Magna Graecia and many other city states shows at least as much linkage. Can you show how the Greek influence on Rome is some how less than Roman influence on Washington DC?

Quote:
And certainly through empires like the British, and America they have indeed devoured the whole earth with Russia (that is subjugated rest of the nations). Both America and England are dominated by the same people who dominated Rome...The Germanic peoples. Even Russia was founded by a Germanic tribe the Anglo-Saxons....the Vikings.

The Greeks, the Slavs, Turks, Germanic, and Latin (itallian?) people basically the Europeans, have since the Days of Rome have been the dominant peoples. All of the modern empires have been established by them....but the Germanic peoples remain dominant....the Roman empire fell into the hands of these people who through the years have tried to revive the empire. The European empires that followed are indeed subsets of the Roman empire.
This can wait until you give some detailed response to the above question.
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Old 04-09-2008, 09:25 AM   #126
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The Grecian empire was completely of the Greeks. The Roman empire was of Latins and the Germanic peoples as well as the Greeks. If im not mistaken the Greek empire did not extend that far into Europe whereas the Romans did. This is what seperates these two empires.
http://library.thinkquest.org/10805/map-g.html
http://ancienthistory.about.com/od/g...ncient-Greece/

Yes, Rome conquered more of Europe. However, why is Europe more important then the middle east, heading into Asia? If we apply this thinking...

Median Empire:http://www.emersonkent.com/map_archi...res_600_bc.htm

Persian Empire: http://edsitement.neh.gov/lesson_ima...anEmpire03.jpg
The Persian Empire extends more into Europe than the Median Empire, therefore The Persians are the "more important" Empire. Not that any of this makes sense, since your "definition" does not make any sense.


Quote:
Rome recruited a large number of Germanic peoples into their armies, and these people later took over the empire. The Germanic peoples have been in control of Europe since then. France, England, Germany, Denmark, Russia, America and a host of other European countries are dominated by the Germanic tribes.
http://www.historyworld.net/wrldhis/...historyid=ac67
The Romans USED the Germanic tribes as a buffer zone. They allowed them to live in Roman territory to protect Romes borders. There are several instances of rebellion against Rome. What seems clear here is that the Germanic people never ever considered themselves as Romans. It is ridiculous to even think that the Romans considered the Germanic tribes as Romans.

http://www.mnsu.edu/emuseum/cultural.../the_huns.html
http://www.thenagain.info/WebChron/w...golEurope.html
http://www.spaincostaluz.com/moors.htm

Oh yes, just the Germanic tribes have been in control of European land since the fall of the Roman Empire.



Quote:
And certainly through empires like the British, and America they have indeed devoured the whole earth with Russia (that is subjugated rest of the nations). Both America and England are dominated by the same people who dominated Rome...The Germanic peoples. Even Russia was founded by a Germanic tribe the Anglo-Saxons....the Vikings.
No matter how much our leaders may wish it, America most certainly has NOT "devoured the whole earth". The British I believe may have been the closest but even then no one nation or empire has ever had control of all of the earth. The Vikings are among the first Russians, but they were not the only inhabitants of the land.
http://www.historyworld.net/wrldhis/...historyid=ac14


Quote:
The Greeks, the Slavs, Turks, Germanic, and Latin (itallian?) people basically the Europeans, have since the Days of Rome have been the dominant peoples. All of the modern empires have been established by them....but the Germanic peoples remain dominant....the Roman empire fell into the hands of these people who through the years have tried to revive the empire. The European empires that followed are indeed subsets of the Roman empire.
*Bolding done by me
http://etc.usf.edu/maps/pages/1400/1429/1429.jpg

You seem to have blinders on to all that is not "German".
So, you admit that many have TRIED to revive the Roman empire only to fail then and that the HRE was NOT even a bastard child of the Roman Empire?
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Old 04-09-2008, 11:01 AM   #127
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Originally Posted by sugarhitman View Post
The Grecian empire was completely of the Greeks.
Wrong.

Quote:
The Roman empire was of Latins and the Germanic peoples as well as the Greeks. If im not mistaken the Greek empire did not extend that far into Europe whereas the Romans did.
You are mistaken as usual.

Quote:
Rome recruited a large number of Germanic peoples into their armies,
Source?

Quote:
and these people later took over the empire.
Wrong. The Empire moved east to Constantinople.

Quote:
The Germanic peoples have been in control of Europe since then.
Also wrong.

Quote:
France, England, Germany, Denmark, Russia, America and a host of other European countries are dominated by the Germanic tribes.
Laughably incorrect. The rest of your post is likewise cartoonish.

That's a lot of guessing for you to do in one post. Are you trying to set a record?
:rolling::rolling::rolling::rolling::rolling:
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Old 04-09-2008, 11:05 AM   #128
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Let me help:

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Originally Posted by Sitamun View Post



You seem to have blinders on to all that is not "German".
Indeed. He even tries to tell us that Germans run Russia. I'll be the Slavs would be surprised (and pissed) to hear that.

Quote:
So, you admit that many have TRIED to revive the Roman empire only to fail then and that the HRE was NOT even a bastard child of the Roman Empire?
He didn't understand that point prior to shooting off his mouth. It's unlikely he will admit the mistake now.
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Old 04-09-2008, 03:08 PM   #129
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Originally Posted by sugarhitman View Post
The Grecian empire was completely of the Greeks.
First thank you for directly responding to my question. Well, every peoples tend to be of older groupings and influenced by others. However, for the sake of argument, we can start here.


This is where I see you getting off the mark. Let’s stay with the early centuries of the Roman Empire’s emergence (like the first 5 hundred years 800-300BC). Wouldn’t this certainly be the defining period of who/what is Roman? Germanic peoples were not part of the early empire. And Greek influence is tremendous. Here is just a small sampling of Greek influence on Rome.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Founding_of_Rome



Below is some information on the emergence of the Roman empire and how Greece gave the Romans their gods, reading and writing, and even were settlers all over the Italian peninsula:

http://www.roman-empire.net/founding/found-index.html



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magna_Graecia


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Etruscans


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roman_R...unding_of_Rome



http://history-world.org/rome.htm


http://www.bestofsicily.com/mag/art153.htm



The Germanic peoples, as I have shown above, were not the party to the creation of the Roman Empire. You have stretched the imagination to make the US and others inheritor’s of the Roman Empire, while the Greek influence and later absorption of Magna Graecia and many other city states shows at least as much linkage. Can you show how the Greek influence on Rome is some how less than Roman influence on Washington DC?

Quote:
And certainly through empires like the British, and America they have indeed devoured the whole earth with Russia (that is subjugated rest of the nations). Both America and England are dominated by the same people who dominated Rome...The Germanic peoples. Even Russia was founded by a Germanic tribe the Anglo-Saxons....the Vikings.

The Greeks, the Slavs, Turks, Germanic, and Latin (itallian?) people basically the Europeans, have since the Days of Rome have been the dominant peoples. All of the modern empires have been established by them....but the Germanic peoples remain dominant....the Roman empire fell into the hands of these people who through the years have tried to revive the empire. The European empires that followed are indeed subsets of the Roman empire.
This can wait until you give some detailed response to the above question.


"The German and Celts ended up therefore being the primary source of recruits for the Roman armie, not suprisingly so as IN RACIAL TERMS THEY WERE MUCH CLOSER TO THE ORIGINAL ROMANS THAN THE MAJORITY OF INHABITANTS OF ROME ITSELF, PARTICULARLY FROM THE 2ND CENTURY A.D. ONWARDS."


"These Romanized Germans and Celts were to play a significant role in the remaining years of the Western Roman empire: and it was they, predictably, who formed the backbone of the resistence to the last German invasions which saw the final physical fall of Rome." www.white-history.com



"The Germanic tribes have been blamed for the collaspe of the Roman empire; however this is incorrect. For the most part the collaspe of the Roman empire was not a collaspe of an empire, but an intergration of Germanic custom and Roman culture. This means the collaspe of the Roman empire was a transfer of power from one ruling party to another. This transfer was niether peaceful nor quick, but it is the foundation of modern western society and Europe as we know it today." http://anthologyoi.com


"The political and territorial unity found at the height of the Roman Empire came to be replaced by the fragmentation of fifth-century western Europe into several Germanic kingdoms."

"Political power shifted from the Romans (not an ethnic title, but political one) to the Germans who after invading the territory settled and established independent kingdoms throughout western Europe." www.ucalgary.ca


The inclusion of the Germanic peoples is what seperates the Grecian and Roman Empires. The Roman empire was divided into the seperate states of Europe dominated by the Germanic tribes. Daniel said this 4th kingdom would fall into a divided state, which is true of the Roman empire. The people who took over the empire has colonized the whole planet. Since that time they have been the dominant power. In Daniel's vision no other human kingdom susceeds the 4th kingdom whether united or divided...no other shall exalt itself over them....they will last to the end. The Roman-European power is the longest reigning power in the history of civilization.....strong as iron that brakes the rest into pieces...how accurate Daniel is.
sugarhitman is offline  
Old 04-09-2008, 03:12 PM   #130
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I'm not even going to click on a link to "white-history" - I think that sugarhitman has just destroyed any credibility he had left, assuming that he had any to start with.

Someone let the moderators know when this thread should be put to sleep.
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