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Old 05-31-2013, 07:28 AM   #1
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Default Appeal to authority

I note with interest that the standard definition of “appeal to authority” is that it is

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an argument from the fact that a person judged to be an authority affirms a proposition to the claim that the proposition is true.

See, e.g. http://www.logicalfallacies.info/rel...-to-authority/
In light of this, I ask:

If I were to say “there are 6 beautiful woman in my bed right now”, how would I go about proving that this was true? One way would be to produce a time stamped photograph of my bed.

And if I did so, would that be an “appeal to authority”?

If I say that there are seven writers I know of who have said the paleo diet works, how would I prove the truth of my claim (which, note bene, is not about the efficacy of the diet) if it were disputed? I’d list the names and cite the places where they said what I claim they say.

Is that an appeal to authority? The issue isn't about whether or not they are correct in saying what they say (if indeed, they say what I claim they have said), but wther it is factually true that they said what I claim they say.

If I claim that Sheshbazzar said that he lived 300 years ago, how would I prove, if he challenged me on the truth of my claim, that he did in fact say this? I’d have to produce a quote of him saying this. In producing such a quote, would I be appealing to authority?

If I were to say that there to my knowledge there was at least one scholar who says that Paul wrote after the Gospels, how would I show that this is in fact true if I were asked to do so? By giving his/her name and the place where he/she says this.

Since the issue is not about the truth of his/her view, but, instead, about whether my factual claim is true, is producing the name of this scholar an appeal to authority (saying something is the case because X said it was the case) or an appeal to something that is (presumably) demonstrable?

So I wonder if what we see in Sheshbazaar’s claim that producing the sort of evidence that would be necessary to demonstrate that his factual claim that there are recognized Pauline scholars who say that Paul wrote after the canonical Gospels were written is true would be to “appeal to authority (i.e., to move from the fact that a person judged to be an authority affirms a proposition to the claim that the proposition he or she speaks of is true) is factually true, not to mention whether he has a firm grasp on what “appeal to authority” is?

Just askin’.

Jeffrey
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Old 05-31-2013, 07:55 AM   #2
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A man after my own heart. The prudes here get mad if you mention sex too much. But what better source for analogies?
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Old 05-31-2013, 08:56 AM   #3
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An example of appeal to authprity.

The reference to physicist Hawking is a good example on the forum.

Mostly on philosophy those with little knowledge of science will quote something limited rom Hawking as a proof of a legitimacy of a philosophical argument on a presumed nature of reality.

Se.... Hawking agrees with me, therefore I am right. Completely ignoring the references from Hawing are highly speculative science and without any proof.

IOW, if Hawking said it, it must have some validity regardless of context.


And all hyperbole aside, the PHD who says I have a PHD therefore you must assume I am right....
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Old 05-31-2013, 08:56 AM   #4
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Due to the nature of the regulars here who for the most part do not follow mainstream modern scholarships.

They always have issues with knowledge from those who have 100 X the education they do.
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Old 05-31-2013, 08:59 AM   #5
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Originally Posted by stephan huller View Post
A man after my own heart. The prudes here get mad if you mention sex too much. But what better source for analogies?
Is this thread going to become another another circle jerk? :Cheeky: Couldn't resist the opening.
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Old 05-31-2013, 09:04 AM   #6
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Due to the nature of the regulars here who for the most part do not follow mainstream modern scholarships.

They always have issues with knowledge from those who have 100 X the education they do.
Mainstream scholarship on this forum seems to mean limiting debate to quoting and arguing between published references. With some not all, making an argument based ones own views and observations not directly supported by published authors is at times deemed to be a lack scholarship.
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Old 05-31-2013, 09:47 AM   #7
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Originally Posted by steve_bnk View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by outhouse View Post
Due to the nature of the regulars here who for the most part do not follow mainstream modern scholarships.

They always have issues with knowledge from those who have 100 X the education they do.
Mainstream scholarship on this forum seems to mean limiting debate to quoting and arguing between published references. With some not all, making an argument based ones own views and observations not directly supported by published authors is at times deemed to be a lack scholarship.
Just because some people can and do abuse this term.

Doesnt discount reposnsible research.
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Old 05-31-2013, 10:11 AM   #8
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A man after my own heart. The prudes here get mad if you mention sex too much. But what better source for analogies?
Perhaps JG is a Lil Wayne fan...

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Old 05-31-2013, 10:19 AM   #9
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Originally Posted by stephan huller View Post
A man after my own heart. The prudes here get mad if you mention sex too much. But what better source for analogies?
Perhaps JG is a Lil Wayne fan...


So is this an "appeal to authority"?

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Old 05-31-2013, 10:32 AM   #10
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And all hyperbole aside, the PHD who says I have a PHD therefore you must assume I am right....
. . . which in the end is exactly what places Oxford opposite to Stradford as anti-christ opposite to Christ.
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