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Old 12-31-2007, 05:16 PM   #171
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If there is such a term, Doherty's case would be strengthened, would it not? It would show that the NT translators are incorporating their theological assumptions into their translations.
Perhaps for the epistles..., but it still doesn't explain the absence of such terms meaning "return" or the specific word Doherty mentioned (palin) in the gospels in places where Jesus is talking about his return to earth in the end days.
Again, see Jn. 14:3

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Old 12-31-2007, 05:21 PM   #172
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Perhaps for the epistles..., but it still doesn't explain the absence of such terms meaning "return" or the specific word Doherty mentioned (palin) in the gospels in places where Jesus is talking about his return to earth in the end days.
Again, see Jn. 14:3

Jeffrey

Yes, but see Jn 21:22, or Mt 16:27,28, 24:30,44, 25:31 and the similar verses in Mark and Luke for the point I am making..

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Old 12-31-2007, 05:25 PM   #173
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If there is such a term, Doherty's case would be strengthened, would it not? It would show that the NT translators are incorporating their theological assumptions into their translations.
Perhaps for the epistles..., but it still doesn't explain the absence of such terms meaning "return" or the specific word Doherty mentioned (palin) in the gospels in places where Jesus is talking about his return to earth in the end days. For me their absence is enough to remove the expectation that Paul use other words if he was writing about a HJ return.
Yes, I also note that this is not the first time that Doherty appears unaware of counter-examples. I found the same situation in my debate with him on Second Century apologists. IMO it amounts to a one-sided presentation of the evidence.

I'd be interested in Doherty's reason on why the GJohn author didn't use a qualifier to indicate "return", and more importantly why the same reason can't be applied to Paul's writings.
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Old 12-31-2007, 05:31 PM   #174
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Again, see Jn. 14:3

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Yes, but see Jn 21:22, or Mt 16:27,28, 24:30,44, 25:31 and the similar verses in Mark and Luke for the point I am making.
I have no idea what this point is. And are you taking into account imperfect, future, aorist and other forms of ἔρχομαι, let alone that, as BDAG notes, absolute ἔρχομαι bore the meaning "return" in Koine?

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Old 12-31-2007, 05:36 PM   #175
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Umm, why? The only point under dispute was Earl's claim that "Greek has no specific word for "return" in the sense of coming back to a place one has visited or been at before".
A digression. The topic here is evidence against a historical Jesus. If you have some abstract question regarding Koine Greek that does not relate to indications of a historical Jesus, you are in the wrong place, or are hijacking the thread.

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... (or did you fail to note that one of the words listed as mening "return" was ἔρχομαι?).
I do not see that word listed, although I see a fair number of words that contain that element - anerchomai, etc.
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Old 12-31-2007, 05:38 PM   #176
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Perhaps for the epistles..., but it still doesn't explain the absence of such terms meaning "return" or the specific word Doherty mentioned (palin) in the gospels in places where Jesus is talking about his return to earth in the end days. For me their absence is enough to remove the expectation that Paul use other words if he was writing about a HJ return.
Yes, I also note that this is not the first time that Doherty appears unaware of counter-examples. I found the same situation in my debate with him on Second Century apologists. IMO it amounts to a one-sided presentation of the evidence.

I'd be interested in Doherty's reason on why the GJohn author didn't use a qualifier to indicate "return", and more importantly why the same reason can't be applied to Paul's writings.


Don...the answer is obvious. You can't apply the same standard: The expecation for Paul to have mentioned a return had Jesus really been historical would have been higher since the expectation for a return would have been greater when he wrote than later on when the gospels were written...

As for the gospels, the expection should also be lower since in order to be more realistic they avoided having Jesus--who was already on earth--say he would return--ie, such a word use would have been redundant!

...Of course the gospels are too late to be evidence for his being historical in the first place though, and Paul's audience understood that the first time he was sent was not to earth..

ted

p.s. EDIT: Sorry for all the edits--it's not always easy trying to think like someone else
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Old 12-31-2007, 05:57 PM   #177
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Umm, why? The only point under dispute was Earl's claim that "Greek has no specific word for "return" in the sense of coming back to a place one has visited or been at before".
A digression. The topic here is evidence against a historical Jesus. If you have some abstract question regarding Koine Greek that does not relate to indications of a historical Jesus, you are in the wrong place, or are hijacking the thread.
Umm .. can you remind me please as to who it was who not only posted Earl's comments on ἔρχομαι but in doing so seemed to feel that the points about Koine made within them were germane to the topic at hand?

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Old 12-31-2007, 06:13 PM   #178
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Umm, why? The only point under dispute was Earl's claim that "Greek has no specific word for "return" in the sense of coming back to a place one has visited or been at before".
A digression. The topic here is evidence against a historical Jesus. If you have some abstract question regarding Koine Greek that does not relate to indications of a historical Jesus, you are in the wrong place, or are hijacking the thread.
But isn't it on topic? You yourself brought up Doherty's comments in relation to this point. If Doherty says that the early authors' use of "erchomai" supports his view, but we find the same usage in one or more Gospels that are counter-examples -- examples that Doherty appears unaware of, I might add -- doesn't this weaken his point? At the least, it indicates data that Doherty has apparently not evaluated.
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Old 12-31-2007, 06:16 PM   #179
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Don...the answer is obvious. You can't apply the same standard:
Yep. I suspect it would be something along those lines.
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Old 12-31-2007, 06:19 PM   #180
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Don...the answer is obvious. You can't apply the same standard: The expecation for Paul to have mentioned a return had Jesus really been historical would have been higher since the expectation for a return would have been greater when he wrote than later on when the gospels were written...
You are begging the question not only in your assertion that Paul did not mention a return, but also in your claim about expectations about Jesus' return being "higher" earlier on than they would have been "later".

Tell me please, was the Jewish expectation for the anticipated new exodus higher in the 50s that it was in the middle sixties when the situation with Rome was reaching (and did reach) its breaking point?

What is your evidence -- and a surmise, let alone a surmise built on questionable premises is not evidence -- for your claim.

As for the gospels, the expection should also be lower since in order to be more realistic they avoided having Jesus--who was already on earth--say he would return--ie, such a word use would have been redundant!

How do you know that being "realistic" was a concern of the gospel writers? And why do you assume, as you seem to do, that their sense of "realistic" involves the perspective you think it does?

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