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Old 06-16-2009, 03:45 PM   #11
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Originally Posted by Baalazel
If Judas is Judah then his betrayal of Jesus makes sense as a metaphor of Israel's rejection of the Messiah. His duplicity in the act, being a follower and a back stabber, mirrors Israel's desire for the coming of the Messiah and it's rejection and execution of him when he did arrive. His horrible death is symbolic of the destruction of Israel as a result of the rejection.

Judas as symbol solves some of the questions that surround Judas. It reveals the requirement that Judas publicly point out Jesus to those who arrested him as a charge that Israel could not expect it's rejection to remain hidden.

If Judas can be understood as metaphor it adds one more layer to the symbolic nature of scripture and to the argument that all of the story of Jesus is best understood as symbolism.

Baal
Obviously, you have not read the criteria for a Messiah. Obviously, you have confused who prevailed with Nazi Rome: Israel lives, resurrected exactly as prophisized - via a small remnant from the ashes of European Christianity, and there are 1000s of bricks in the wall today. Where is mighty Rome?
We have a difference of view. I am saying Jesus and his story is a fiction laced with symbolism and metaphor. The character of Judas has always been troublesome. I had never thought to apply symbolic meaning to Judas though it now seems to fit the story well.

Nothing in my post works against the criteria for a Messiah, which seems to be rather simple. The Messiah would be a military leader chosen by God to restore the nation of Israel to a place of dignity and respect among the nations. As yet no man has accomplished that goal.

It is not possible to deny the destruction of Israel in 70 CE. That the story of Judas may offer a symbolic understanding of the event is interesting in that it points us to a method of understanding his story. If you want to apply salvation history to events regarding Rome and the Church feel free to do so. If you want to offer some argument against the symbolic interpretation of scripture you have yet to do so. My argument is that the story of Jesus is best understood as symbolism. Some of that symbolism may refer to historic events. That reference in no way negates the symbolic nature of the text.
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Revelling on the destruction of Israel, who alone stood up to Rome and its depraved emperperors' heresy doctrine, which was continued by the Church - is hardly a good lesson for humanity what denotes love.
Reveling in the destruction of Israel is not my purpose nor is it found in my post. I do not deny that Rome was despotic and brutal.
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LOVE THY NEIGHBOUR = BS

LOVE THE STRANGER = HEBREW TRUTH.


Christianity can only prove itself how it acts against the Jews - and this is how the world will measure Christians because they know what the Jews are up against - exactly what will befall them also. The Hebrew bible will test and expose the lie - because a falsehood has no place with truth.


"WHEN FREEDOM OF BELIEF - BECAME MIGHTY ROME'S GREATEST WAR"

And guess who won.
How Christianity chooses to prove itself is of little interest to me. I have no quarrel with the Jews and worrying who won this battle now thousands of years on is of no interest to me at all.

Baal
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Old 06-16-2009, 03:49 PM   #12
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Originally Posted by Baalazel View Post
If Judas is Judah then his betrayal of Jesus makes sense as a metaphor of Israel's rejection of the Messiah. His duplicity in the act, being a follower and a back stabber, mirrors Israel's desire for the coming of the Messiah and it's rejection and execution of him when he did arrive. His horrible death is symbolic of the destruction of Israel as a result of the rejection.

Judas as symbol solves some of the questions that surround Judas. It reveals the requirement that Judas publicly point out Jesus to those who arrested him as a charge that Israel could not expect it's rejection to remain hidden.

If Judas can be understood as metaphor it adds one more layer to the symbolic nature of scripture and to the argument that all of the story of Jesus is best understood as symbolism.

Baal
Interesting thought, maybe you should expand on it.
Working on it. The old brain runs slower now so it will take a little time.

Baal
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Old 06-16-2009, 11:32 PM   #13
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If Judas is Judah then his betrayal of Jesus makes sense as a metaphor of Israel's rejection of the Messiah.
Or maybe it was just a coincidence. It was a common enough name at the time.
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Old 06-17-2009, 04:35 AM   #14
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Technically, none of the prededing is quite accurate. When properly translated from Greek it is true that there should be only a single form of the word which is, indeed, Judah. In Greek however there exists both of the forms: IOUDAS (Judas) and IUDA(N) (Judah). The former is the genitive case of the latter but, for all practical purposes Judas, Judah, and for that matter, Jude, are identical except in grammatical form. The confusion is the result of inept translation from Greek into English (compounded by the fact that a bankrupt modern educational system no longer exposes students to ancient languages in any meaningful way).
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Old 06-17-2009, 01:37 PM   #15
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Originally Posted by Baalazel View Post
If Judas is Judah then his betrayal of Jesus makes sense as a metaphor of Israel's rejection of the Messiah. His duplicity in the act, being a follower and a back stabber, mirrors Israel's desire for the coming of the Messiah and it's rejection and execution of him when he did arrive. His horrible death is symbolic of the destruction of Israel as a result of the rejection.

Judas as symbol solves some of the questions that surround Judas. It reveals the requirement that Judas publicly point out Jesus to those who arrested him as a charge that Israel could not expect it's rejection to remain hidden.

If Judas can be understood as metaphor it adds one more layer to the symbolic nature of scripture and to the argument that all of the story of Jesus is best understood as symbolism.

Baal
Jewish writings consistantly blame bad things on their own failings. It seems no different that early Christians writers would pick up on this theme and use it.

Is it sufficient to say Judas betraying Jesus is symbolic of Judah's rejection of Jesus? If put this simply, what does the symbolism say? One obvious reading is the events of 70 CE and the notion that Judah was squashed by Rome because they rejected Jesus, their own messiah. Could the betral symbolism have arisen prior to 70? What would it have meant in that context? Potentially how far does the alegory of the story of Jesus go?
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Old 06-17-2009, 05:50 PM   #16
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Technically, none of the prededing is quite accurate. When properly translated from Greek it is true that there should be only a single form of the word which is, indeed, Judah. In Greek however there exists both of the forms: IOUDAS (Judas) and IUDA(N) (Judah). The former is the genitive case of the latter but, for all practical purposes Judas, Judah, and for that matter, Jude, are identical except in grammatical form. The confusion is the result of inept translation from Greek into English (compounded by the fact that a bankrupt modern educational system no longer exposes students to ancient languages in any meaningful way).
I don't see how failure to expose students to ancient languages is a sign of educational bankruptcy.

(If, for some reason, you think it's important to expose students to the concept of case inflections, this can be done through modern languages as easily as ancient ones.)
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Old 06-21-2009, 09:51 PM   #17
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various posts by IamJoseph and responses centering on IamJ's repetition of worn themes have been split off here.
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Old 06-21-2009, 10:28 PM   #18
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The Jewish false messiahs don't seem substantially different than Jesus. Sabattai Zevi was apparently accepted by most of the Jewish world in the mid 17th century.

No, because it was the Jews who negated their own candidates. Christianity never did so of their own false Messiah.
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Old 06-21-2009, 10:36 PM   #19
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Technically, none of the prededing is quite accurate. When properly translated from Greek it is true that there should be only a single form of the word which is, indeed, Judah. In Greek however there exists both of the forms: IOUDAS (Judas) and IUDA(N) (Judah). The former is the genitive case of the latter but, for all practical purposes Judas, Judah, and for that matter, Jude, are identical except in grammatical form. The confusion is the result of inept translation from Greek into English (compounded by the fact that a bankrupt modern educational system no longer exposes students to ancient languages in any meaningful way).
Those are not the errors, and one speaking in their own language is acceptable. The problem is when a sacred scripture does not also include the original Hebrew names - which borders on a falsehood - or worse. I note that although the Hebrew bibe is in Hebrew - nonetheless it gives the non-hebrew names in its original form. This tells me the Gospels was inculcatng that the Hebrew was dead - or should be, and in the process it abuses historical veracity. The names Judas & Jesus in Judea is fiction.
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Old 06-22-2009, 05:40 AM   #20
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The Jewish false messiahs don't seem substantially different than Jesus. Sabattai Zevi was apparently accepted by most of the Jewish world in the mid 17th century.

No, because it was the Jews who negated their own candidates. Christianity never did so of their own false Messiah.
One might say that "false messiah" is redundant.

In the case of Jesus, I don't think there is any argument that he has done the best job so far.

I'm not sure a religion can be judged on its skill in rejecting pretenders to impossible titles, but certainly Judaism has demonstrated no special skill in this regard anyway.
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