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Old 09-22-2006, 08:04 AM   #21
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(1) that Paul was a diaspora Jew

(1) that PARALAMBANW had come...

(2) that every Hellene, not to mention...

(3) that the meaning PARALAMBANW allegedly...

(4) that even if this were so, diaspora Jews...
I am really glad that you are not a bank teller...

Could you clarify what number goes with what in your subsequent argumentation? I could make assumptions but that road leads to, well, assumptions...

Julian
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Old 09-22-2006, 04:21 PM   #22
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I am really glad that you are not a bank teller...

Could you clarify what number goes with what in your subsequent argumentation? I could make assumptions but that road leads to, well, assumptions...

Julian
Ooops!

Let's rename the second #1 as #1a. Thus:

Quote:
(1) that Paul was a diaspora Jew

(1a) that PARALAMBANW had come to be established as a technical term in the mysteries prior to the second century CE ;

(2) that every Hellene, not to mention every Jew in the diaspora, was familiar with the technical language of the mysteries.

(3) that the meaning PARALAMBANW allegedly had in the first century within (some of) the Mysteries came to be the primary sense of that word outside of the Mysteries; and

(4) that even if this were so, diaspora Jews would have abandoned using PARALAMBANW with the technical sense it had in Jewish tradition.
Given this, I should have written:

Quote:
But #1 assumes the truth and the historicity of Acts.

As to #1a, Lexical evidence indicates that PARALAMBANW was not used in any mystery maning with the (technical) meaning "pass on revelation" until after the 2nd century (if I'm reading the evidence correctly).

There is nothing in the literature outside that of, or about, the mysteries that shows #2 to have been the case.

The lexical evidence attesting to usage of PARALAMBANW stands decidedly against #3.

And as for #4, And 1st century Greek Jewish literature shows that there was no such abandonment.
And I don't see how # 2 is a straw man.

Jeffrey Gibson
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Old 09-22-2006, 08:46 PM   #23
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And I don't see how # 2 is a straw man.
I think it originates with the notion that Paul should not be equated with "every Hellene".

"Every educated citizen of Tarsus"?
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Old 09-22-2006, 09:11 PM   #24
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I think it originates with the notion that Paul should not be equated with "every Hellene".
Is that what I claimed?

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"Every educated citizen of Tarsus"?
To say this, one must accept not only

(1) the historicity of the Acts portrait of Paul and his origins, but

(2) that "every educated citizen of Tarsus" knew/was familiar with the technical language of the mysteries, let alone with any of the mysteries themsleves,

(3) that even if they were, that PARALAMBANW had by Paul's time taken on within any of the mystery cults the meaning of "passed on a revelation", and

(4) that in the minds of "every educated citizen of Tarsus", this meaning would have displaced all other meanings that the verb had, and would have been regarded as its primary sense.

I'd be grateful if you could point me to any evidence that indicates that these points should be accepted as true.

Jeffrey Gibson
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Old 09-22-2006, 09:12 PM   #25
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"Every educated citizen of Tarsus"?
Now we're back to using Acts.

Stephen
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Old 09-22-2006, 09:17 PM   #26
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Now we're back to using Acts.

Stephen
And apparently to assuming that Tarsus was a locus of one or more mystery cults, not to mention one that used PARALAMBANW to signify "passed on a revelation".

Sheesh.

Jeffrey Gibson
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Old 09-23-2006, 12:03 AM   #27
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Is that what I claimed?
That is the impression one gets when you take Doherty's statement about Paul and turned it into "that every Hellene, not to mention every Jew in the diaspora, was familiar with the technical language of the mysteries."

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I'd be grateful if you could point me to any evidence that indicates that these points should be accepted as true.
You might be grateful but would you be any closer to understanding why your characterization of Doherty's position was considered a straw man?

You seem to have completely missed the point of my response (not to mention the question mark after it) so I guess I'll have to be more explicit:

I believe the accusation of "straw man" indicates a perception that you were overgeneralizing when you jumped from Paul to "every Hellene". I also suspect that, if you narrow down the comparitive population, you will negate that accusation.
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Old 09-23-2006, 12:14 AM   #28
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Now we're back to using Acts.
I suspect that would be considered less of a straw man characterization of Doherty's position than what Jeffrey offered, yes.
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Old 09-23-2006, 04:04 AM   #29
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Perseus has 1,178 instances of παραλαμβανω. TLG will undoubtedly have quite a few more than that. If there are specific examples to support Doherty's claim I'd love to see them. But if the specific claim about mystery religions doesn't stand up, I think the onus is now on those arguing in the affirmative to show some other religious context for such a use.
I guess I am not understanding why we are even having this discussion -- the arguments over the other meanings of the words essentially miss Doherty's argument. One of Doherty's strategies for interpreting Paul is to let Paul define what Paul says, not Plutarch or Aristophanes or the Septuagint. Doherty's point is that we have to believe that Paul is consistent in his usages. In Gal 1:11-12 Paul seems to affirm that he has received his information from no man, but through revelation. Similarly 1 Cor 11:23-6 has the same information -- he received it from the Lord. Doherty's point is that the meaning of 1 Cor 15:3-4 then must be consistent with other Pauline passages. Otherwise we would be forced to argue that Paul learned that Christ died for our sins from the disciples (1 Cor 15), but about the last supper from the Lord (1 Cor 11).

I know I'm rusty not having been around for a while. So what am I missing here?

Vorkosigan
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Old 09-23-2006, 05:45 AM   #30
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In Gal 1:11-12 Paul seems to affirm that he has received his information from no man, but through revelation.
In a recent post, Didymus stated the following:

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it only precludes Paul having received his gospel - kerygma - from historical tradition. It does not preclude him having received information about Jesus from historical tradition, or even from eyewitness accounts.
So, should we equate kerygma with information on Jesus or not?
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