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Old 05-08-2009, 03:10 PM   #141
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as a side note, I learned what bustophedron or boustophedron refers to. Man I love this board!
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Old 05-08-2009, 03:17 PM   #142
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as a side note, I learned what bustophedron or boustophedron refers to. Man I love this board!
Just a note, the -u- is wrong -- I was working from another language there. The -ou- is correct.

ETA:

Eeek, boustrophedon. The pesky word... 'bou-' from bous "ox", -strophe, ie "turn". It's from plowing land, the bull pulling the plow, then turning to go back for the next row.


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Old 05-08-2009, 03:22 PM   #143
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Not a problem. Ceaser, Caesar, it all works on the net
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Old 05-08-2009, 03:22 PM   #144
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This is going to be my final word on the Shishak issue as the whole drawn-out thing is getting silly. To summarise my position:

(a) There are historical and chronological reasons to question the identity of Shoshenk I as the biblical Shishak who, according to the biblical narrative, attacked Judah, took its fortified cities and plundered the temple of Jerusalem and the royal palace there in the 5th year or Rehoboam (usually dated to 926 BC).
The version of the Shishak story in 2 Chr 12 is an interesting aid to this matter. God is reported as saying "my wrath shall not be poured out in Jerusalem by the hand of Shishak". Jerusalem was not destroyed by Shishak, but Jerusalem capitulated: "they shall be his servants". The tradition, which doesn't have Jerusalem destroyed by Shishak, matches Shoshenq's own account of the cities destroyed, ie Jerusalem is not mentioned, but many others are, that feature destruction in the latter part of the tenth century, such as Megiddo, Rehob, Taanach and Gezer. While Shoshenq I is on record as having destroyed these places, I didn't know that Ramses II was. Palestine was so well under the control of Egypt that the Egyptian front was up in Syria, where Ramses fought a battle against Hattusili III the Hittite at Qadesh.

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(b) The Shoshenk campaign itinerary at Karnak lists scores of locations which the Egyptian army reached. These do not include Jerusalem or (with the exception of one on the main highway into the northern hill country) any of the fortified towns protecting Judah claimed to have been attacked by Shishak. In fact Shoshenk’s campaign concentrated on the territory of the Northern Kingdom of Israel and then the Negev. In other words Shoshenk actually avoided the Southern Kingdom of Judah. This is the exact opposite of the biblical narrative concerning Shishak.
See above. And, while Ramses II had no reason to need to destroy his cities in Palestine, the territory was lost to the Egyptians during the 20th dynasty and Shoshenq I was the first pharaoh to emerge again to rip through Palestine.

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(c) The internal Egyptian evidence (coupled with inscriptions from Byblos) dates Shoshenk I to the very end of the 9th century BC which is a whole century later than the biblical date for Shishak.
There's not much here, other than an oblique reference to Byblos inscriptions. Perhaps this point could be rendered more tangible so it can receive a response.

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(d) Yet Kitchen uses the biblical date to establish the date for the Egyptian king based on his identification as Shishak. The whole chronology of the Third Intermediate Period is held up by this methodological error.
No problem has been demonstrated as yet. On hold.

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(e) The only mentions of Israel in Egyptian inscriptions come from the 19th Dynasty (specifically a statue base from the early reign of Ramesses II and the Merenptah Stela). These references place Israel in Palestine and show that Egypt recognised Israel as a political entity. It is listed alongside Hatti, Libya and Syria as a major player in the region (and not a bunch of tribes wandering around Sinai or eking out a living in the hill country of Palestine).
The Merneptah Stela features Israel as what should be a tribal group (talking about "its seed"), unlike any of the others. Also, I would have thought that Israel, along with Ashkelon, Gezer and Yanoam, was a specification of the previous statement that Canaan had been plundered, so, no, it doesn't place Israel on a par with Hatti, Libya or Syria. That's just more wishful thinking.

(And note the northward movement from Ashkelon to Gezer to Yanoam, so we should expect that Israel is a small group of locality status located north of Yanoam.)

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(f) The poem on the Merenptah Stela mentioning Israel is reflected in the campaigns inscribed on the exterior wall of the hypostyle hall at Karnak where we see Ramesses II (or according to Yurco, Merenptah) fighting against an Israelite army using chariots. The first time that Israel possessed a chariot force (according to the OT) was in the time of Solomon. There is absolutely no indication that Moses or Joshua employed chariots. None of the stories in Judges says anything other than that the Israelite tribes employed infantry tactics. King David actually ordered the destruction of enemy chariots seized in battle and the hamstringing of the horses because he had no use for them. So the conclusion I draw from all this is that Ramesses II and his son Merenptah were contemporaries of Solomon and Rehoboam. There are internal chronological indications (genealogies, etc) from Egyptian archaeology which confirm this general time frame.
Nothing needing comment here. Yurco's opinion is all that's at stake.

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(g) Ramesses had a hypocoristicon - Sysw - which was common currency in Syro-Palestine (places in that region being named ‘X of Sysw’). The W vowel marker at the end of the shortened name probably represents an A. In the Year 21 Hittite Treaty, the Hittite version (written in the lingua franca of Akkadian) gives the full names of Usermaatre-setepenre Ramesses-meriamun as Washmuaria-shatapnaria Riamashesha-miamana. This shows how the Hittites heard Ramesses name (remember that the writing of the name we employ is modern Egypto-speak based on Greek). So the hypocoristicon of Riamashesha is represented here by Shesha.
How the Hittites represented Ramses is quite irrelevant here. What would be at stake here is the apparently unsupported claim that Sysw was common currency in Syro-Palestine. Perhaps some evidence could be proferred (although I've asked for evidence of Rohl's claims without any success so far). I know about the Shasu, but Rohl is claiming that Ramses was being referred to by his hypocoristic, which seems odd because Ramses II so frequently placed his official names on everything he was responsible for. Is there a confirmed sighting of Ramses' hypocoristic outside Egypt?

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(h) Where Egyptians employed the letter S in names, the Semitic languages (including Akkadian and Hebrew) sometimes (and I believe regularly) used a shin. Thus the Egyptian name of the land south of Egypt in modern Sudan was Kus. The Hebrew version was Kush. The name of Ramesses’ father was Sutu (Egypto-speak Seti) whereas the Hebrew version was Shutu. The Egyptian word for ‘man’ was ‘is’, the Hebrew ‘ish’. Kitchen claims that this transfer of S to Sh never occurs. I disagree.
It would be good if Rohl could write terms more literally. The etymology of )y$ (alef, yod, shin) is under doubt, but it seems to be related to the Akkadian i$anu (strong). I don't think Rohl is in any position to posit an Egyptian source for )y$.

Kush is an amusing example. If we look at Gen 10:8ff we find Kush the father of Nimrod, who was responsible for the land of Shinar. Obviously, the writer had ka$$u in mind here. (The dynasty that ruled Babylon during the Middle Assyrian period were the Kassites.) The writer has plainly confused ka$$u with Rohl's Kus and ended up with Kush.

As to "Shutu" I have no idea where it is in Hebrew literature. Perhaps David Rohl could provide the reference.

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(i) It has been claimed that the name Ramesses is written in biblical Hebrew with samek and not shin/sin. The problem with this argument is that samek in the Late Bronze Age and early Iron Age represented Ts and Td and not S [see (J. E. Hoch: ‘Semitic Words in Egyptian Texts of the New Kingdom and Third Intermediate Period’ (Princeton, 1994), pp. 407-8, 429) and R. S. Hendel in BASOR 301]. It is only later, in the late Iron Age, and probably in the time of Josiah, that the name Ramesses was edited into the biblical narrative when samek could be used to represent S. But in the time of Ramesses II (and in the NC, Solomon and Rehoboam) samek could not be used for Egyptian S because it would have given Tsytsw which is nothing like Sysw. This is why we have so much evidence in the Semitic languages to show that Sh (shin) was used.
I didn't know that there were any Hebrew texts available from the Late Bronze or early Iron Ages for comparison. Hoch obviously was working not with Hebrew as a source for the Semitic words. But any port in a storm.

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(j) Moreover, the early Hebrew script (without the pointing of the Massoretic texts of more than a thousand years later) did not distinguish between sin and shin. There was a single sign (looking like W) to represent them both. So I don’t even have to argue that Egyptian S became Sh in early Hebrew writing (although I believe that it did).
So we come back to... if known Egyptian examples of /s/ are samek in Hebrew, why isn't it the case that Shishak was written with a samek?

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(k) And, in addition, the early (10th century) Hebrew signs for waw and qoph were identical (see the Lachish VI ostracon and the Izbet Sartah abecedary). So the name Sysw would have been written in Hebrew in exactly the same way as the scribe would have written Shyshak - with sin/shin-yod-sin/shin-waw/qoph. I cannot illustrate this for you here (I don’t believe you have the facilities to do that) but, rest assured, you would find it impossible to tell the difference. I would therefore argue that the 10th century Hebrew scribes recorded the name as shin/shin-yod-shin/sin-waw and it was only in the time of Josiah or later - when waw no longer looked like qoph - that the scribes of that time mistook the name as shin-yod-shin-qoph.
The claim regarding the Izbet Sartah inscription is wrong and I haven't been able to track down a "Lachish VI ostracon", so I can't comment there, though as it is dated to the 12th c., it seems too early to reflect Hebrew anyway.

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(l) So I have internal archaeological evidence from Egypt to date Shoshenk later than Rehoboam, plus evidence that Ramesses II was contemporary with Solomon (with his chariots), plus linguistic evidence to show how Ramesses’ popular name - Sysw - might have ended up as Shishak centuries after the events under discussion.
This is all rendered mute by the problems noted above.

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That is it from me on this subject, unless reasonable clarifications are requested.
Numerous clarifications have been asked in this exchange, but very few, if any, have been provided upon request.

Rohl has avoided the evidence which points to the name in Hebrew actually being $w$q, given the Ketiv reading and the support of the consistent LXX transliteration. As I said, it's a very inconvenient truth. He has to fudge not only the first, third and fourth letters, but also the second.


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Old 05-09-2009, 01:46 AM   #145
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Spin seems to think that every town/city listed on Egyptian walls as subservient to pharaoh was destroyed. Nowhere do these lists say that the towns were destroyed. How naive can you get? No-one in their right mind would think that Egyptians went around destroying all the cities in their sphere of influence - economic self-mutilation would not be very bright would it?. Did Thutmose III destroy Megiddo or Kadesh - both of which, according to his annals, he beseiged? No. But they nevertheless get listed on his walls with the rest of the vassal towns.

Did Pharaoh Shiskak politely wait outside Jerusalem whilst the priests and officials brought out bits of treasure to pay him off? No. How daft do you think the Egyptians were? It clearly states that the Egyptians 'took' the treasures from the temple and palace. The city was plundered of its wealth. And why doesn't Shoshenk's list include the Judaean fortified settlements which Shishak seized? Nowhere does any Egyptian city-list require the destruction of the towns, only their submission.

Spin is just a very uninformed character with some very wild ideas:

(1) Eclipses cannot take place at the beginning of a lunar month.
(2) The Goshen of the Israelites' Egyptian Sojourn was in Arabia.
(3) Egyptians destroyed every town that they listed on their reliefs.
(4) The name of the Kassites in Mesopotamia is the origin of the name of the Kushites in Sudan.

It's amazing to me how he gets away with his madness - but you all seem to be intimidated by him to such a degree that he rarely gets challenged. Sad.
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Old 05-09-2009, 02:22 AM   #146
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Originally Posted by spin
The version of the Shishak story in 2 Chr 12 is an interesting aid to this matter. God is reported as saying "my wrath shall not be poured out in Jerusalem by the hand of Shishak". Jerusalem was not destroyed by Shishak, but Jerusalem capitulated: "they shall be his servants".
DR: So we are now quoting God for historical evidence are we?

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Originally Posted by spin
The tradition, which doesn't have Jerusalem destroyed by Shishak, matches Shoshenq's own account of the cities destroyed, ie Jerusalem is not mentioned, but many others are, that feature destruction in the latter part of the tenth century, such as Megiddo, Rehob, Taanach and Gezer.
DR: Produce a single text or piece of evidence to show that Shoshenk destroyed these cities. Then explain why Shoshenk (as Shishak) campaigned against cities which were not in Judah but didn't campaign against cities that were in Judah? To quote God once again, it was Judah upon which he sent the wrath of Egypt not Israel, who's king had been supported by Egypt.

Next give me evidence to link the destructions of Megiddo, Rehob, Taanach and Gezer with Shoshenk. Another fine piece of circular reasoning:

(a) Shoshenk I is Shishak.
(b) Therefore Shoshenk is dated to the 10th century based on the Bible.
(c) The late-10th century destructions in the Kingdom of Israel are therefore the work of Shoshenk.

This whole scenario is based on the original identification and, even though all the evidence is against Shoshenk being Shishak (viz. the campaign relief), he must be responsible for the destructions. There are PhD studies that have shown that Egypt only very rarely destroyed towns in the northern territories (from memory, the only example was the destruction of Sharuhen by Ahmose). Given the down-dating of the archaeology of Megiddo by Finkelstein and Ussishkin (the current excavators), the most likely destroyers of the northern cities were the Aramaean hordes from Syria.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
While Shoshenq I is on record as having destroyed these places, I didn't know that Ramses II was.
DR: No Shoshenk is not on record as having destroyed these places. That is completely untrue. Stelae of Ramesses II have been found which mention the capture of Gezer and Ashkelon.

Spin should really avoid playing his games in the Egyptological, archaeological and historical playgrounds because he knows next to nothing about these subjects and is just making a fool of himself.
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Old 05-09-2009, 03:08 AM   #147
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Spin seems to think that every town/city listed on Egyptian walls as subservient to pharaoh was destroyed. Nowhere do these lists say that the towns were destroyed. How naive can you get? No-one in their right mind would think that Egyptians went around destroying all the cities in their sphere of influence - economic self-mutilation would not be very bright would it?. Did Thutmose III destroy Megiddo or Kadesh - both of which, according to his annals, he beseiged? No. But they nevertheless get listed on his walls with the rest of the vassal towns.
As usual Bro Rohl is perversely packaging information. This at least seems to be something he has a penchant for. One reads in the fertile crescent of towns being reduced to a pile of dust. Destruction. It was a relative thing.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
Did Pharaoh Shiskak politely wait outside Jerusalem whilst the priests and officials brought out bits of treasure to pay him off? No. How daft do you think the Egyptians were? It clearly states that the Egyptians 'took' the treasures from the temple and palace. The city was plundered of its wealth. And why doesn't Shoshenk's list include the Judaean fortified settlements which Shishak seized? Nowhere does any Egyptian city-list require the destruction of the towns, only their submission.
Did Shishak need to wave a stick at Jerusalem?

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Spin is just a very uninformed character with some very wild ideas:
Says the fellow who seems relatively clueless about linguistics! Not all lollipops are what one wants them to be.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
(1) Eclipses cannot take place at the beginning of a lunar month.
This is desperation when it has already been admitted as a brain fart.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
(2) The Goshen of the Israelites' Egyptian Sojourn was in Arabia.
Are you so slow that you still don't understand what is being talked about? Or are you just misrepresenting for inability to do anything better?...

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
(3) Egyptians destroyed every town that they listed on their reliefs.
...I guess it has to be misrepresentation.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
(4) The name of the Kassites in Mesopotamia is the origin of the name of the Kushites in Sudan.
Another sorry misrepresentation.

The process I described seems difficult for David Rohl to (want to) understand, but an analogy: when an area shared by India and Pakistan where there were five rivers had its name transcribed by the Brits, it came out written Punjab, which many pronounced poon-jab, but "punj" rhymes with "grunge" and means five in Hindi. That of course was lost because the origin of the word was unimportant once a spelling had been established.

Another analogy: we call a collection of letters an alphabet, but that is only really appropriate for the Greek collection. Then we call a written exemplar of an alphabet an "abecedary", coming from the first four letters of the Latin alphabet, which might be inappropriate for a written Hebrew alefbet, but we still use it.

It should be clear from Gen 10:8ff where the name Kush came from, as it is strictly connected with both Mesopotamia and Kus. The origin of the name is unimportant once the form had been established.

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It's amazing to me how he gets away with his madness - but you all seem to be intimidated by him to such a degree that he rarely gets challenged. Sad.
Obviously David Rohl hasn't been here long enough to have any idea of the dynamics of the forum. He's a little too caught up with his own hobby horse to notice much of the real world.




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Old 05-09-2009, 03:53 AM   #148
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It's amazing to me how he gets away with his madness - but you all seem to be intimidated by him to such a degree that he rarely gets challenged. Sad.
I wouldn't get too worked up David. This place is merely an amatuer internet forum. Don't take it too seriously. Some people though, are confusing it with the real world.

All the best with your work when you return to it.
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Old 05-09-2009, 04:43 AM   #149
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It's amazing to me how he gets away with his madness - but you all seem to be intimidated by him to such a degree that he rarely gets challenged. Sad.
I wouldn't get too worked up David. This place is merely an amatuer internet forum. Don't take it too seriously. Some people though, are confusing it with the real world.

All the best with your work when you return to it.
DR: You're absolutely right! Time to give this up as a complete waste of time. I have no complaints about everybody else who has contributed to this thread - all of whom have been polite and sensible. However, there is no point whatsoever in arguing with a man who is incapable of normal and reasoned debate. So I will get back to my work and leave this place to him. He is obviously at home here and I would hate to make him feel any more uncomfortable. Will check in occasionally to see how you are all doing.
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Old 05-09-2009, 09:23 AM   #150
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
The version of the Shishak story in 2 Chr 12 is an interesting aid to this matter. God is reported as saying "my wrath shall not be poured out in Jerusalem by the hand of Shishak". Jerusalem was not destroyed by Shishak, but Jerusalem capitulated: "they shall be his servants".
DR: So we are now quoting God for historical evidence are we?
I guess David Rohl has difficulty perceiving the difference between text and god.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
DR: Produce a single text or piece of evidence to show that Shoshenk destroyed these cities.
Do you honestly think that Merneptah reduced Yanoam to "non-existence"? Destruction of an ancient city was quite an elastic idea to the propagandists of the powerful. This sort of literalness is of fundy proportions.

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Then explain why Shoshenk (as Shishak) campaigned against cities which were not in Judah but didn't campaign against cities that were in Judah? To quote God once again, it was Judah upon which he sent the wrath of Egypt not Israel, who's king had been supported by Egypt.
During the early Roman empire, do you think that it was only christians who were persecuted? If you read only christians sources, that's all you would hear. Reading Judahite sources will tend to tell you things from the Judahite perspective.

Once again the fundy literalist attitude.

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Next give me evidence to link the destructions of Megiddo, Rehob, Taanach and Gezer with Shoshenk. Another fine piece of circular reasoning:

(a) Shoshenk I is Shishak.
(b) Therefore Shoshenk is dated to the 10th century based on the Bible.
(c) The late-10th century destructions in the Kingdom of Israel are therefore the work of Shoshenk.
We see pundits here who try to argue circularities with frequency. They do the sort of thing David Rohl does here, ie repackage in order to misrepresent.

Rohl's approach is basically a restatement of arguments from his book. But let's look at the data.

We have a name $w$q, which, if one consults all the Egyptian pharaohs, reflects well Shoshenq's name (needing only the assimilation of the /n/) -- so obviously without any kludges of Rohlian proportions. (It shouldn't be a shin, and the qof is really a waw, and the difficult reading of the waw should be ignored even though it refects all the transliterations of the name into Greek.)

A statue of Shoshenq was reused by king Abibaal of Byblos, father of Hyram (Josephus Contra Apion 1.18). Hyram's coffin has been dated due to the palaeography of the Phoenician inscription on it to the 10th c. BCE, placing Abibaal to the 10th c. and Shoshenq before him. Palaeography is not an exact science so there is some latitude, but we have a good indication of Shoshenq being in the 10th c.

[We could also construct an independent dating for Shoshenq I through the bridging synchronism between Egypt of Akhnaten and Assyria of Ashur-uballit I (from the Amarna letters), the continuous Assyrian chronology of the kinglists (which is well-supported by epigraphy) making this relatively easy. Hanging the relative chronology from Akhnaten (at the time of Ashur-uballit I) requires a length of time close enough to the status quo chronology, which would put Shoshenq where he is at the moment, mid to late 10th c.]

Shoshenq I is a good candidate for the figure mentioned in the Rehoboam story.

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This whole scenario is based on the original identification and, even though all the evidence is against Shoshenk being Shishak (viz. the campaign relief), he must be responsible for the destructions. There are PhD studies that have shown that Egypt only very rarely destroyed towns in the northern territories (from memory, the only example was the destruction of Sharuhen by Ahmose). Given the down-dating of the archaeology of Megiddo by Finkelstein and Ussishkin (the current excavators), the most likely destroyers of the northern cities were the Aramaean hordes from Syria.
Besides the incredulity here of the notion of destruction being flexible, Rohl talks of Finkelstein, who wrote a paper in 2002 called "The Campaign of Shoshenq I to Palestine: A Guide to the 10th Century BCE Polity." He may have changed his views since 2002, but certainly not sufficiently to change his connection of Shoshenq with the archaeological evidence he used in 2002.

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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
While Shoshenq I is on record as having destroyed these places, I didn't know that Ramses II was.
DR: No Shoshenk is not on record as having destroyed these places. That is completely untrue. Stelae of Ramesses II have been found which mention the capture of Gezer and Ashkelon.
If we overlook David Rohl's language fundamentalism, ie a word cannot be used to mean anything other than what is deemed the literal meaning, there's a wall at the temple at Karnak that provides his itinerary and to quote Donald Redford, "it is highly likely that Sheshonq's itinerary can also be construed as a swath of destruction and captured cities". (E.C.&I. p.313.) Did Sheshonq include all the cities taken in the campaign?

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Spin should really avoid playing his games in the Egyptological, archaeological and historical playgrounds because he knows next to nothing about these subjects and is just making a fool of himself.
I try to avoid matters Egyptological.

My comments have mainly been about Rohl's confused notions of linguistics as seen in his unconvincing connection between Ramses II and the figure we usually call Shishak through a species of argument by vague similarity of appearance, abetting this confusion by incoherent attempts at etymologies of other words, apparently without knowledge of the orthographic issues or any functional methodology behind his phonological dabblings.

At the end we are left with a four letter name, none of the letters of which are found in his hypothesized source and a pack of excuses as to why his candidate should get the nod.

We haven't even started on the crux of the biscuit: how his lopping of several hundred years from Egyptian chronology can survive comparison with the continuous chronology of Assyria. Mr Rohl would be shredded by Occam.


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