Zwaarddijk

I have a hard time believing that the first Christian clergymen were tax-exempt.

Also, is anyone seriously surprised that rhetorical texts use rhetorical tricks?!

mountainman

Let me be more specific. The clergy of the centralised monotheistic state Christian Roman church following Nicaea were tax-exempt, and according to one historian over 1800 bishops were personally appointed by Constantine.

My personal opinion is that Constantine personally appointed bishops to the most important cities from his army personnel. They did not have to be able to read because there were READERS deployed in the service of the bishop to read out aloud the holy writ to the people.



They shouldn't be if they understand that only very few people in antiquity were literate, and that one of the central modes of entertainment in antiquity was attending a reading, in a local home, at an assembly of people or in the local theatre (the Hollywood of antiquity).

The texts were meant to be read by a reader skilled in rhetoric.

It was and still is brainwashing.






εὐδαιμονία | eudaimonia

another1

I would consider any form of writing brainwashing in one way or another.

mountainman

Isn't the tele-evangelist industry based on it?



But back to the OP, does this suggest that the authors of the books of the new testament were professional Greek rhetoricians?

Would fishermen or tax collectors use chiasmus?





εὐδαιμονία | eudaimonia