judge

I would dispute this.
Can you show where any scholar has shown this to be the case

Diogenes the Cynic

For which part, that the Gospels are in Greek or that we don't have an Aramaic record of the words of Jesus? Both of these things are self-evident.

spin

The earliest documentation is in Greek. The Greek, despite various efforts to the contrary, shows no convincing signs of an Aramaic substratum. It is that simple. Diogenes the Cynic has said nothing controversial when he says:


Bye, bye. :wave:


spin

judge

Now i finally think I see what you are after.

Jesus refers to beelzebub (Lord of the flies) Aramaic.

Jesus nicknames two disciples bnay raghshee (sons of thunder) which is transliterated into the greek as Boanerges .

Gesthemene is Aramaic (a place).

Golgotha is Aramaic (a place).

Qorban is Aramaic (a religious term).
All these words occur in the greek versions

Jesus is recorded spaeking Aramaic on the cross as well.

judge

Yes but before we found the dead sea scrolls the earliest hebrew bible was in greek too.
Those believers from the more semitic traditions did not keep old and dmaged copies of thier sacred writings, they copied them and destroyed the dmaged ones.

That is one reason why we find many many greek fragments.

We don't tend to find this with the peshitta

judge

Self evident?
This sounds like a religious cult.

Johann_Kaspar

Both Aramaic and Greek are translations from Hebrew.

French Prometheus

Certainly not for the NT.

Johann_Kaspar

Certainly for the NT! :rolling: :rolling: :rolling:
I am beginning to think that you can't read French...

French Prometheus

I must admit I don't get it