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Old 11-21-2007, 10:04 AM   #21
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If the gospels are both fictitious and contradictory, there must be something that allows this to happen.

Human imagination would seem to do the trick.
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Old 11-21-2007, 10:28 AM   #22
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But before all this turns into strawman positions, shouldn't we clearly define what is data and what is inference on this topic? How about this:

1. There are four gospels transmitted to us, which the ancient authors ascribe to the apostles or their associates (Irenaeus, Tertullian Adversus Marcionem 4, etc). Three of these have passages which are verbally identical. All this is fact.
Irenaeus, born between 115 and 142, died about 200.
Tertullian, born about 160, died “very old”, published Adversus Marcionem in 207, or about 207.
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Old 11-21-2007, 10:29 AM   #23
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I think that it is clear that the gospels contain contradictions (which disprove inerrancy but nothing else); the writers, compilers, and editors of the various parts of the NT were aware of those contradictions; therefore the writers, compilers, and editors did not think of the gospels as inerrant historical descriptions of events. They knew that they were dealing with theological works, which modern people would label "fiction," because they are not based on "reality."

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Old 11-21-2007, 10:31 AM   #24
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Where's the OP poster?
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Old 11-21-2007, 11:01 AM   #25
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Just for giggles: Luke 22:39-46 has Jesus going off by himself on the Mount of Olives to pray.

The corresponding passages in Mark are Mark 14:32-41.

They don' t match, mainly in the dialog that the authors give to Jesus, and in Jesus' demeanor. In Luke, Jesus is scared, he's in anguish. Mark portrays him as much more stoic and in control. Why the difference? In both cases, who was around to record his dialog and frame of mind? (Remember, he was by himself...)
FWIW Luke 22:43-44 (the Agony in the Garden) is textually dubious; a number of ancient manuscripts omit it.

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Old 11-21-2007, 11:05 AM   #26
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Default More White Chappel Murder narratives

Hi Ninjay,

Alfred Hitchcock made "The Lodger" in 1926, loosely based on the Whitechapel Killings. It was remade as a less successful sound film in 1932 by Maurice Elvey and in 1944 by John Brahm. A new version directed by David Ondaatje is now being filmed.

The real life actor, Ivor Novello, who starred in the 1926 and 1932 versions of the Lodger, is a character in Robert Altman's Gosford Park (2001) which is set in 1933. He is the only historical character in that film. The other 40 or so characters are fictional. Although, another character claims to be producing a film called "Charlie Chan in London," his name (Morris Weissman) is different from the actual producer (John Stone) of the 1934 film Charlie Chan in London.

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay
(An old Night Stalker fan)




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Originally Posted by Anti-anti-theist View Post
Let's put all of this in argument form.

The Gospels contain contradictions.
The Gospels are fictitious.
If the Gospels are fictitious, then they were either written separately or together.
If they were written separately, there is no explanation for the similarities between the stories.
If the Gospels are fictitious, they must have been written together.
Shirley Knott has already pointed out the absurd nature of your argument.

You're suggesting that all fictitious accounts of an event must be written together.

The following are all fictionalized accounts of the Whitechapel killings that took place in London in 1888 (I'm working with film here, but I could just as easily cite books):

Kolchak: The Night Stalker, episode 1.1, The Ripper, a 1974 TV show.

The Ripper, an 1985 direct to video film.

Jack The Ripper, a 1976 German theatrical film.

From Hell, a 2001 American theatrical film.

Same source material. Wildly different interpretations. 27 years apart.
The rest of your post, to use your own words, is

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nonsense.
regards,

NinJay
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Old 11-21-2007, 11:08 AM   #27
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Message to Anti-anti-theist: First of all, it is not incumbent upon skeptics to reasonably prove that the Bible contains contradictions. Second of all, if the Bible had been written much more clearly, far fewer skeptics would mention apparent contradictions. Third of all, inspiring and preserving texts indicates that whoever inspired and preserved the them wants people to have access to them. Since hundreds of millions of people died without hearing the Gospel message, it is obvious that no God wanted people to have access to it. If the universe is naturalistic (since I am an agnostic, I am not saying that it is), it is to be expected that the Gospel message would be spread entirely according to the existing means of communication, transportation, printing, and translation of a given time period, and that the people who would have had the most opportunity to hear it would be people who lived closer to Palestine. It appears that that scenario is what happened. It is not logical for anyone to assume that if the God of the Bible exists, he would refuse to personally and verbally tell anyone about the Gospel message.

The fact that the Bible does not say a lot more than it says about slavery is good evidence that a loving God did not inspire the writing of the Bible.

There is good evidence that a person's belief system depends completely dependent upon chance and circumstance. It is my position that a loving God would not allow a person's belief system to depend completely upon, or even largely upon, chance and circumstance.

Kosmin and Lachman wrote a book that is titled "One Nation Under God." The authors provide a lot of documented research that shows that in the U.S., the chief factors that determine religious beliefs are family, geography, race, ethnicity, gender, and age. I would like to add time period to that list, meaning which century a person is born in. In the U.S., a much higher percentage of women become Christians than men. That means that God discriminates against men. A much smaller percentage of elderly skeptics become Christians than younger people. That means that God discriminates against elderly skeptics. The Microsoft Encarta Deluxe Edition 2004 says that "The overwhelming majority of the Syrian population is Sunni Muslim." Obviously, God discriminates against children who are raised by Muslim parents. Regarding the spread of the Gospel message in the first century, God discriminated against people who lived far away from Palestine by refusing to tell them about the Gospel message. Of course, it should be obvious to everyone that none of that is true. No loving God would act like that because acting like that could not possibly be necessary towards the achievement of worthy, fair, and just goals.

James says that if a man refuses to give food to a hungry person, he is vain, and his faith is dead. Why do you suppose that God inspired James to write that? Consider the following post that I made recently at the GRD Forum:

Quote:
Originally Posted by JohnnySkeptic
One would think that if the God of the Bible exists, and wants people to believe that intelligent design exists, he would show up and demonstrate that it exists. Wouldn't that be much more convincing than anything that Christians could come up with? Well of course it would. The incredible, odd, and unexplained situation that we have is that God only wants people to believe that intelligent design exists if another human being convinces them to believe that it exists. That would mean that God cares more about some people choosing to TRY to convince other people to believe that intelligent design exists than he cares about how many people BELIEVE that it exists. Simply stated, God cares more about METHODS than he cares about RESULTS. That does not make any sense. The same argument applies to people who need food. James says that if a man refuses to give food to a hungry person, he is vain, and his faith is dead. Now why do fundamentalist Christians suppose that God inspired James to write that? Surely not to ensure that everyone would have enough food to eat because God refused to give food to hundreds of thousands of people who died of starvation in the Irish Potato Famine. This means that God only wants hungry people to have food if other people give them food. Simply stated, God cares more about HOW people get enough food to eat than he cares about people HAVING enough food to eat. That does not make any sense either. What does make sense is that if a God exists, he is not the God of the Bible.
What of value to humanity do you believe God would not be able to accomplish without killing people and innocent animals with hurricanes?

If you would prefer to discuss these issues at the GRD Forum, or at the Philosophy Forum, that would be fine. It is my position that the philosophical evidence against the Bible far outweighs the apologetic evidence for the Bible. The lack of known, reasonable, and justifiable motives on God's part is good evidence that while a God might exist, the God of the Bible does not exist. If a moral God wants to have fellowship with humans, he certainly does not need to seriously injure and/or kill them in order to do that.

James Holding usually or always avoids debating philosophy, and with good reason. He would not be able to come up with any good answers regarding why God does what he does. If you wish, you can send him this post for his comments. He knows who I am since I used to debate him a lot at the Theology Web. I once tried to have a serious debate with Holding about a ridiculous article that he wrote about the Tyre prophecy. Since he knew that he was in trouble, for the most part he made uncorroborated claims, and often made ad homimen attacks against me. One of his absurd claims was that there is historical evidence that the Tyre prophecy predated the events. There is of course no such evidence, and Holding knew it. When I asked him for corroboration, he refused to provide it. Holding is a liar. I debated Holding for many months about the size of first century Christian church. I mentioned that in "The Rise of Christianity," Rodney Stark estimates that there were 7,530 Christians in the world in 100 A.D. This is in "stark" contrast to the "World Christian Trends" estimate of 800,000 Christians in 100 A.D. If the Gospels are fraudulent, a figure anywhere near 7,530 makes sense because the vast majority of people would not have believed events that never happened. Well anyway, Holding strongly protested all of Stark's evidence, including archaeological and papyrological evidence, only to finally basically say many months later "So what if I [now] agree with Stark's estimate? I was only trying to make a 100% case into a 150% case." Now really, no rational, honest person would say something like that.
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Old 11-21-2007, 11:45 AM   #28
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I think that it is clear that the gospels contain contradictions (which disprove inerrancy but nothing else); the writers, compilers, and editors of the various parts of the NT were aware of those contradictions; therefore the writers, compilers, and editors did not think of the gospels as inerrant historical descriptions of events. They knew that they were dealing with theological works, which modern people would label "fiction," because they are not based on "reality."
Ignoring the part on contradictions in the gospels, I would be interested in support for the assertion that "the writers, compilers, and editors of the various parts of the NT were aware of those contradictions." I am not interested in the speculation that often goes for support on this site but actual tangible data that can be verified. Scholarly opinion by itself is not verifiable, but needs additional support for it to be more than opinions or editorials.

Understand that this is your blissful opinion, but do you have any proof for it? Don't mean to be difficult, but this is a rather strong statement.

Thanks,
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Old 11-21-2007, 11:47 AM   #29
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My position is they are inspired(which allows for the authors to have some knowledge of jesus without being there) accounts from eyewitness sources which also obviously includes individual perspective from the writers viewpoint.

there's nothing wrong with apologetics you use it as a bad word but all it means is to defend the christian word.
Did it ever occur to you that if the bible was really inspired, it would not need any defending? Someone blundered badly here - either the one who did the inspiring, or the ones who were inspired (or alternatively: There's no inspiration at all).

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I have a real problem with the veracity on the gospels judged on language and use of texts as the written word was completely different 2000 years, firstly while writing is widespread now, then it was confined to a much smaller part of the population, scholars and scribes who were taught to abide very strictly by form and format in a way we just are not now. I just can't see how a modern scholar can safely say he can be a perfect judge of language form and format 2000 years after the fact.
Because modern scholars have studied ancient texts extensively and know about all what you whine about here. See, it's simple - scholars are not that dumb as you think you are. You certainly did not do this intentionally - but by comments like the above you deeply insult scholars. They've done much hard work, over many years, and have invested even more years to study the topic in depth. Yet you seem to think that they are too dumb to think about things which you - an amateur - thought up.

Think about this.

And read up on this before you make assumptions about what scholars assume.
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Old 11-21-2007, 01:25 PM   #30
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Ah, but NinJay, the events described in those films were based on a true story...
All fictionalizations of a true story. The OP appeared to assert that multiple fictionalizations of a story had to occur at the same time. The assertion didn't depend on the core story being true or not (although I surmise the OP's assumption is that the core Gospel story is true.)

regards,

NinJay
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