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Old 03-26-2004, 08:26 PM   #11
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Spin:
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We know that in the middle thirties Herod Antipas sent John the Baptist to Machaerus which was on the Nabataean border. John had been stirring trouble because of Herod's divorce from the daughter of the Nabataean king Aretas IV so that he could have a someone troublesome marriage to Herodias. The ensuing war brought Aretas north into Herod's territory, but the Romans intervened to drive him back.
The middle thirties? Where do you get that dating?
The ensuing battle between Herod & Aretas did not have to, and did not, occur right about Herod divorce & remarriage. I put the later at 27 and the former in 36 (explanations in HJ-1b)
Furthermore, the Romans turned back half way. So Aretas was never defeated. The Roman army also never got into Aretas' territory, either just conquered or not, because it was advancing through Judea.

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Aretas IV never had control of Damascus, though we know an ancestor did toward the end of Seleucid control of Syria. Aretas II was asked to become the ruler of Damascus around 85 BCE.
I know, no external evidence to support 2Cor11:32, but I think there is a good possibility Damascus was leased to Aretas in 37-40, in exchange of him vacating Herod's territories like Perea, never reconquered. And Caius was the new emperor. He certainly did not force Vitellius into continuing the campaign. It is likely an agreement was reached between Caius' men and undefeated Aretas, some kind of exchange.

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Now the only historical indication to come to light from Paul's letters is a reference to his flight from Damascus which was under the control of Aretas (2 Cor 11:32). If this is a factual indication it must mean Aretas II and Paul then lived around 85 BCE.
Possibly a later Christian interpolation, I admit. I do not make much use 2Cor11:32 anyway, just that the return of Paul in Damascus from somewhere in Arabia (under the control of Aretas) would make more sense is Damascus got under the same ruler as the place where Paul disappeared for a while.

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Old 03-26-2004, 08:57 PM   #12
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Originally posted by Bernard Muller
The middle thirties?
Yup.

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Where do you get that dating?
The connection between John the baptist's complaint and the date of Aretas's action. Aretas did not wait nearly a decade to attempt to take his revenge.

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Furthermore, the Romans turned back half way. So Aretas was never defeated. The Roman army also never got into Aretas' territory, either just conquered or not, because it was advancing through Judea.
It was sufficient for the Romans to get involved. This forced the Nabataeans back. Just as Scaurus's involvement in 64 BCE drove them back.

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I know, no external evidence to support 2Cor11:32, but I think there is a good possibility Damascus was leased to Aretas in 37-40, in exchange of him vacating Herod's territories like Perea, never reconquered.
This is not particularly reflective of Roman policy with regard to their clientele, especially when one initiates a crisis.

The divination against Vitellius AJ 18,5,3 indicated that Aretas IV was at Petra.

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And Caius was the new emperor. He certainly did not force Vitellius into continuing the campaign. It is likely an agreement was reached between Caius' men and undefeated Aretas, some kind of exchange.
What makes it likely that the Romans knuckled under to Aretas when he had invaded a long-time Roman friend?

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Possibly a later Christian interpolation, I admit. I do not make much use 2Cor11:32 anyway, just that the return of Paul in Damascus from somewhere in Arabia (under the control of Aretas)...
(Arabia had a different meaning then. Philip's tetrarchy included Arabs.)

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... would make more sense is Damascus got under the same ruler as the place where Paul disappeared for a while.
The geographical term, Arabia, included territory rather near Damascus.


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Old 03-27-2004, 06:19 AM   #13
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Default Re: Re: Dating Paul's Epistles

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Originally posted by Attonitus
A paleographical dating of P46, containing Romans, 1 Thess, 1 Cor, 2 Cor, Gal, Eph, Phil, Col, and Hebrews (partial) 200 CE. Previously, only speculations.
Agreed. The earliest surviving manuscripts all, with the possible exception of P52 date to around 200 CE, based on paleographic analysis. Since both these documents were recovered from Egypt, it does demonstrate that Paul's letters and GJohn were available there in that time-frame.

It's a shame that no one will sacrifice a piece for C14 dating.
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Old 03-27-2004, 07:58 PM   #14
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Originally Posted by capnkirk
Agreed. The earliest surviving manuscripts all, with the possible exception of P52 date to around 200 CE, based on paleographic analysis. Since both these documents were recovered from Egypt, it does demonstrate that Paul's letters and GJohn were available there in that time-frame.

It's a shame that no one will sacrifice a piece for C14 dating.
Ahh...

I was wondering about that very thing. Carbon 14 dating for P52. Yes, that would certainly settle some things.
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Old 03-27-2004, 10:13 PM   #15
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Originally Posted by capnkirk

It's a shame that no one will sacrifice a piece for C14 dating.
I don't think it would matter, cap'n. The time frame of the NT writings, about a century, is within the margin of error of the measurement.
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Old 03-27-2004, 10:51 PM   #16
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Originally Posted by Vorkosigan
I don't think it would matter, cap'n. The time frame of the NT writings, about a century, is within the margin of error of the measurement.
Depending on the size of the piece and the how clean it is of carbon based contaminants, it could be helpful as showing that a particular fragment/text does, or does not, falsify an argument. A C-14 dating supporting the traditional dating of P52 would falsify the proposition that the gospels were a mid 2nd c. development -- and datings are more precise these days than they were a decade ago. A dating confirming the more recent analysis that P52 was late 2nd c. would put the ball in the court of those who want to argue that the gospels were older.


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Old 03-27-2004, 11:01 PM   #17
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I don't think it would matter, cap'n. The time frame of the NT writings, about a century, is within the margin of error of the measurement.
Here's a little release on the Dead Sea Scrolls and radiocarbon vs. Paleographic dating. What you are saying Vork, seems to be so:

http://www.physics.arizona.edu/physi.../dead-sea.html

(also: Only milligrams of a sample are needed for radiocarbon age dating by accelerator mass spectrometer technique)

Yeah, it could falsify things if the radiocarbon range didn't overlap one or the other hypothesis.

Hmmm. Edited to add - In that article some of the ranges are narrower. That might be what spin is saying about the quality of the sample.
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Old 03-28-2004, 04:55 AM   #18
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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller
Capnkirk,
I would not agree about 80 years after the facts. I date 'Acts' at around 90, that is 40 to 30 years after the facts. But if you have already made up your mind, so be it.
Bernard,

I think that we are actually closer together than that (and, no I haven't yet made up my mind about it). The period that Acts allegedly covers is about 30 years...from the pentecost experiences in the early chapters to Paul's appearance before Festus near the end. My reference to 80 years (from the earliest 'events') only places Acts at around 110 CE, and that is someone else's figure (Mack's). Of course, if one were to accept Mack's thesis en toto, then any dating based on Acts would based solidly on thin air.

As for the earliest extrabiblical referencing to the gospels, Tacitus' entry in Annals (15.44), c 108-115 CE specifically references Christ's crucifixion by Pontius Pilate, implying that at least one of the Synoptics was in circulation by then (which, incidentally strains Doherty's dating pretty seriously). Tacitus also consistently refers to them in that passage as Xtians, implying that that term was in general use in the first and second decades of the 2nd century.

These are representative of the kinds of extrabiblical dating references I am asking about, and why I am asking you how you came up with some of the dates in the links you provided. I'm asking you to peel another layer off the onion, so to speak, and share some of your development with us.

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Old 03-28-2004, 05:17 AM   #19
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Originally Posted by spin
We know that in the middle thirties Herod Antipas sent John the Baptist to Machaerus which was on the Nabataean border. John had been stirring trouble because of Herod's divorce from the daughter of the Nabataean king Aretas IV so that he could have a someone troublesome marriage to Herodias. The ensuing war brought Aretas north into Herod's territory, but the Romans intervened to drive him back. Aretas IV never had control of Damascus, though we know an ancestor did toward the end of Seleucid control of Syria. Aretas II was asked to become the ruler of Damascus around 85 BCE.

Now the only historical indication to come to light from Paul's letters is a reference to his flight from Damascus which was under the control of Aretas (2 Cor 11:32). If this is a factual indication it must mean Aretas II and Paul then lived around 85 BCE.
The whole account of JBp is fraught with temporal inconsistencies. GMark claims that Herod Antipas was told that Jesus had raised JBp from the dead. This is the preamble that introduces the account of JBp's execution, so we are led to believe that JBp's execution took place before Jesus'. Yet there is fair extrabiblical evidence that the trouble that brought Aretas IV to Herod's territory came before JBp's execution.

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Old 03-28-2004, 06:16 AM   #20
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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller
capnkirk:

Not really, I struggled to get the dating right and I am confident each item has some solid basis. That's the first step.
The second one is to reach full cohesion/coherence, and everything fit very nicely.
I do not think your parallel with the OT is warranted. We are not looking at the same thing. And dismissing, by rhetorical means, work which took me several years is easy & cheap.
Bernard,

My apologies; exegetical analysis is a very valuable tool for research of ancient documents. My comparison with the dating by virtue of "begats" was meant as a general observation relating to the limitations of exegetics, not its worthiness. Besides, I am not claiming that there are no extrabiblical date hooks, only that without them, only the sequencing of events may be reasonably checked, not specific dating. Though this is also a HB-specific example: Consider how erroneous early 20th century archaeologists' dating of specific Canaanite sites turned out to be (according to Finkelstein) because they relied on HB myth for their chronological anchors.

What I am currently trying to determine is just how much the currently accepted dates for Paul's letters depend on other NT references. The conflicting JBp references (per my previous post) serve to illustrate the endemic danger in relying on scripture as the foundation layer for date analysis.
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