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Old 08-30-2007, 04:25 PM   #1
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Default Does the writer of John 21:24 claim to be an eyewitness?

John 21:24 says "This is the disciple which testifieth of these things, and wrote these things: and we know that his testimony is true." Did the writer mean himself, or someone else? If the writer meant himself, are there any other examples of where he wrote in the first person?

Approximately when was John probably written? If it was written around 100 A.D., as some scholars claim, how could people have reliably checked out its supernatural claims that long after the supposed facts?
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Old 08-30-2007, 09:23 PM   #2
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And why is the word "μαρτυρων" (martureo mar-too-reh'-o: to be a witness, i.e. testify) a favorite of the author of John yet doesn't appear at all in the book of Mark?
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Old 08-31-2007, 06:43 AM   #3
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Quote:
Originally Posted by OneInFundieville View Post
And why is the word "μαρτυρων" (martureo mar-too-reh'-o: to be a witness, i.e. testify) a favorite of the author of John yet doesn't appear at all in the book of Mark?
Not sure, but various words related to that verb appear in Mark. For example, the words μαρτυρια (testimony), μαρτυριον (also testimony), and μαρτυς (testifier or witness).

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