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Old 03-17-2010, 10:21 AM   #11
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Now, is Paul using χριστος in any sense differently from the traditional sense or is he simply using it to refer to a specific person who he believes is the messiah? -- as Akiba would have referred to Simeon bar Kochba as the messiah.
I suppose that the most parsimonius answer would be that this actually refers to assemblies of Jesus believers.
We are dealing with a period just after his conversion. There is no reason to think that his new religion had spread through the assemblies. One would have to assume that he didn't mean what he said in Gal 1:11-12, ie that he learned about Jesus through revelation. If he actually learned about Jesus before his revelation then he could be referring to the assemblies in Judea in Jesus, but that is contrary to his statement about getting the information from god. This should caution you from assuming that he meant more by "messiah" at this point. He may have considered that his messiah was the one that these assemblies are in, but that would be him projecting.


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Old 03-17-2010, 12:16 PM   #12
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I suppose that the most parsimonius answer would be that this actually refers to assemblies of Jesus believers.
We are dealing with a period just after his conversion. There is no reason to think that his new religion had spread through the assemblies. One would have to assume that he didn't mean what he said in Gal 1:11-12, ie that he learned about Jesus through revelation. If he actually learned about Jesus before his revelation then he could be referring to the assemblies in Judea in Jesus, but that is contrary to his statement about getting the information from god. This should caution you from assuming that he meant more by "messiah" at this point. He may have considered that his messiah was the one that these assemblies are in, but that would be him projecting.


spin
i actually view this as part of an anti Marcionite interpolation, as I believe that the entire first Jerusalem trip is part of the whole Luke Acts and Pastorals package deal.
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