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Old 06-04-2007, 03:10 AM   #131
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So: Paul's not using "Jesus"' sayings, tidbits from his life-story, etc., to bolster his arguments in his letters, where it would have been apposite to do so, and indeed quoting Scripture instead, makes it plausible that the familiar Gospel "Jesus" (with all that life-story and all those pithy sayings) is a later invention than Paul, and that Paul's "Jesus" was a "God" like others - e.g. an entity met in visions, possibly embodying a philosophical ideal, possibly a novel kind of Jewish take on the Mysteries.
Where would Paul have mentioned any of this and why would he have mentioned it there? Please use other ancient sources to back up your claims, not just "what you think".
It's not "why would he", it's "why wouldn't he"? It's up to the person who claims Paul's writings are evidence for the "Jesus" we all know and love to try and suggest why, when there's no mention of the sayings or doings of that "Jesus" in Paul's writings, they still consider those writings evidence of that "Jesus".

On the one hand, I'm relying on nothing more than general psychology. People, generally, get excited about their idols, want to know the details, use their sayings to guide their lives, etc., etc. On the other hand, someone who wants to claims Paul's writings are evidence of the "Jesus" we all know and love, to try and figure out some special psychological (or whatever) reason why Paul doesn't mention that "Jesus"' sayings and doings, contrary to what one would normally expect.
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Old 06-04-2007, 03:31 AM   #132
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It's not "why would he", it's "why wouldn't he"? It's up to the person who claims Paul's writings are evidence for the "Jesus" we all know and love to try and suggest why, when there's no mention of the sayings or doings of that "Jesus" in Paul's writings, they still consider those writings evidence of that "Jesus".
But there are - he quotes Jesus twice, and alludes to other sayings that the gospels present as Jesus speaking. He also talks about Jesus' last supper, death, and resurrection. There are some references - now it's up to you to defend your theory of "silence".

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On the one hand, I'm relying on nothing more than general psychology. People, generally, get excited about their idols, want to know the details, use their sayings to guide their lives, etc., etc.
Always? Can you show this to be true? Do you have any evidence for this claim?

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On the other hand, someone who wants to claims Paul's writings are evidence of the "Jesus" we all know and love, to try and figure out some special psychological (or whatever) reason why Paul doesn't mention that "Jesus"' sayings and doings, contrary to what one would normally expect.
Again, evidence for what "one would normally expect". Where and why. Back up your claims.
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Old 06-04-2007, 04:49 AM   #133
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It's not "why would he", it's "why wouldn't he"? It's up to the person who claims Paul's writings are evidence for the "Jesus" we all know and love to try and suggest why, when there's no mention of the sayings or doings of that "Jesus" in Paul's writings, they still consider those writings evidence of that "Jesus".
But there are - he quotes Jesus twice, and alludes to other sayings that the gospels present as Jesus speaking. He also talks about Jesus' last supper, death, and resurrection. There are some references - now it's up to you to defend your theory of "silence".
I don't know what "allusions" you mean Chris, nor do I know what you mean by "talks about" in the above. Can you give some references? I'm sure they're probably contested, and I don't have the time for that kind of back and forth at the moment. (Remember, I was just presenting the outline of the argument from silence as it can be found in Doherty, for example, to try and counter Lee's presentation of the argument from silence as something simplistic.)

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On the one hand, I'm relying on nothing more than general psychology. People, generally, get excited about their idols, want to know the details, use their sayings to guide their lives, etc., etc.
Always? Can you show this to be true? Do you have any evidence for this claim?
Some general stuff:

Seeing by Starlight: Celebrity Obsession

Divine Trash: the Psychology of Celebrity Obsession

And for celebrity in the ancient world:

Review of a an article on the subject

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Quote:
On the other hand, someone who wants to claims Paul's writings are evidence of the "Jesus" we all know and love, to try and figure out some special psychological (or whatever) reason why Paul doesn't mention that "Jesus"' sayings and doings, contrary to what one would normally expect.
Again, evidence for what "one would normally expect". Where and why. Back up your claims.
Uhh, it's a point of logic Chris: if Paul's writings are considered to be evidence for the "Jesus" of the Gospels, you want there to be some of that "Jesus"' sayings and doings in Paul's writings. Otherwise, the "Jesus" in Paul looks purely like a kind of mystical thing, and there's even a hint of use of Mystery terminology there too. Doherty goes into this a bit in his article on the Mysteries on his website; but elsewhere on his website you'll see he makes this very point: something is evidence for what it is. Paul is, on the face of it, evidence for a mystical sort of Jesus, not, on the face of it, evidence for a historical Jesus, so if you want to make Paul evidence for a historical Jesus you have to work harder than if you want to make him evidence for a mystical Jesus. So why not take the face value? Otherwise you have to have a good reason to explain the silences. People don't see that this is where the burden of proof lies because they're so used to reading the Gospel Jesus into Paul, hence the silence is puzzling. But if you take the face value reading of a mystical Jesus, there's no silence, and no puzzle - it's the straightforward reading.

(Btw I got a sense of this ages before I read Doherty, in my own totally amateur way. Years ago, in my twenties, I was in a hotel room and there was one of those bibles they have in hotels, and I read the letters. It seemed to me even then that something very peculiar was going on, if the "Jesus" Paul was speaking about was the "Jesus" I was familiar with - they didn't seem like the same entity at all, to me.)
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Old 06-04-2007, 05:05 AM   #134
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I don't know what "allusions" you mean Chris, nor do I know what you mean by "talks about" in the above. Can you give some references? I'm sure they're probably contested, and I don't have the time for that kind of back and forth at the moment.
Assuming your conclusion as part of your argument?

So far in this thread, when presented with evidence, we have MJ'ers

--saying that the references in Paul are later Christian insertions "because it makes sense".

--confusing Josephus' Ant. 20.9.1 with the TF.

--And here, assuming that any references in Paul to a literal man, "are probably contested", even before the specific passages are given.

What's next? Are those who think that there was likely a historical Jesus once again going to be accused of being closet Christians?

I'm particularly curious why Earl Doherty, who is participating in this thread, has completely ignored my question of why he hasn't published his claims in a peer-reviewed scholarly journal, or even whether he has attempted such publication.

Talk about a glaring argument from silence!
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Old 06-04-2007, 06:26 AM   #135
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--And here, assuming that any references in Paul to a literal man, "are probably contested", even before the specific passages are given.
Well, what I meant was, I'm vaguely aware of some such passages, but IIRC Doherty does give arguments against them (I think some are based on them being criticised even by orthodox scholars, but again my memory's vague on that). I'm sure it would be interesting to go through them, but I'm not the best person to do it right now. As an interested layman, I like to see the to- and fro- on this board, so it would be interesting to see what Chris thinks are the "allusions" and "talkings about" he means.

As I said, I was just outlining the form of the kind of "argument from silence" that Doherty uses and how it applies in Paul, or, to be absolutely precise, how Doherty and other mythicists tend to think it applies (to show Lee that it wasn't as simplistic as he was making out).

At the end of the day we all come to these texts with some background assumptions. If you simply assume that the "Jesus" Paul was talking about is the "Jesus" of the Gospels (or some obscure preacher/revolutionary/whatever supposed to be at the root of that "Jesus") then there's a problem with Paul, a problem which seems to have been recognised by scholars for a long time.

OTOH, if you don't have that assumption, and have only the general background assumption I've been talking about (that when somebody is idolised, loved, a celebrity, even in a small circle, then there's bound to be a great interest in the details of that person's life and sayings), then there's no problem with Paul whatsoever - he straightforwardly seems to be talking not about somebody who ever lived, but about a sort of proto-Gnostic, mystical "Christ", with a hint of non-dualism and a maybe a hint of the Mysteries.

The "it's one and the same Jesus" assumption is quite natural for Christians of course, and has been natural in the Christian tradition. But I don't think it's quite the blank slate that a proper historical study would start with - and although that's just my opinion judging from general reading of history, it seems to be a point that's also made by some of the sceptics/agnostics on this board like Spin, Toto, etc.

Plus also, if it's true that this is the earliest writing we have about "Jesus", then it's even more important to read it without importing assumptions coming from later times, to see what kind of "Jesus" Paul presents, in and of itself, and see if it makes sense as being the first kind of "Jesus" there ever was. If it makes sense as a mystical Redeemer figure, then the historical stuff surely must be a later addition somehow? (Or at least, that's highly plausible as an alternative to "obscure preacher immediately deified then given life details and having words put into his mouth". This seems bizarrely convoluted compared to what seem to me the much more straighforward "mystical Redeemer concretised and a lineage to him concocted in order to gain political and psychological ascendancy of one part of the early Church over others." The latter seems more par for the course in world religions - e.g. compare and contrast Lao Zi who has been mentioned before. People do that sort of thing, concretise over time, if there was a lack of concrete detail in the beginning.)
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Old 06-04-2007, 08:20 AM   #136
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But my point is that the origin and meaning of the name Yeshua would not have been obvious to 1st century Jews.
If you could actually establish that to be the case, I think you would have a stronger argument though I doubt mythicists would consider it a death blow to their position.

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I guess I was thinking more of the reverse situation, ie, gods being given names that already existed as human names.
Now that, IMO, is a more interesting angle on the issue though probably no more likely to obtain a surrender.
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Old 06-04-2007, 09:23 AM   #137
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...
So far in this thread, when presented with evidence, we have MJ'ers
Please note - you do not have "MJ'ers" - you have particular single participants here.

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. . .


What's next? Are those who think that there was likely a historical Jesus once again going to be accused of being closet Christians?
If you object so much to having your motives attacked, you might avoid doing that to others.

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I'm particularly curious why Earl Doherty, who is participating in this thread, has completely ignored my question of why he hasn't published his claims in a peer-reviewed scholarly journal, or even whether he has attempted such publication.

Talk about a glaring argument from silence!
You are confused about the role of publishing in peer reviewed journals. In the scientific field, a publication in a peer reviewed journal is part of the validation process and is a key factor in separating accepted research from research that might be inadequate or even fraudulent. In addition, scientific research proceeds by small incremental steps, suitable for a single paper in a journal which can be abstracted in a paragraph.

In the humanities, there is no comparable agreement on methodology or standards of proof, and scholarly journals cannot not play the same role.

If you look at some of the articles published in scholarly journals in the field of NT studies, they generally confine themselves to small incremental steps in understanding some aspect of textual analysis or interpretation. Doherty could not publish his book in that fashion - he would have to carve out a small area of interpretation, and then another. If he were a young scholar with a long term plan to overturn the field, this would be a good strategy. But he doesn't have that time line. There are probably other factors.
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Old 06-04-2007, 11:16 AM   #138
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The amount of evidence one has to explain away in order to date all the canonical Gospels later than the death of Trajan is too great to make it a plausible option IMO.
There's another of those IMOs.


This is the easiest explanation of the relationship between the gospels and thus has a certain edge of other theories. Occam and all that.


Unfounded assumption through facile reading of later writers. It merely says that Marcion's gospel was around before the time of those writers, that the version of Luke that they had was related to it and that they believed Marcion must have bowdlerized Luke, though they have no way of knowing.

IIUC it is difficult to combine Markan priority with the idea of Marcion's version of Luke being original. Marcion's Gospel is further from Mark than our Luke.

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I gather this is from a comparison of gospels with the texts related to these figures. Can you supply how you ascertained the direction of borrowing?
The Acta Archelai claim that Basilides commented on the parable of Lazarus.

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And you can date the Apocalypse of Peter, assuming the canonical gospels were the source?
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Verily I say unto thee, when the twigs thereof have sprouted forth in the last days, then shall feigned Christs come and awake expectation saying: I am the Christ, that am now come into the world. And when they (Israel) shall perceive the wickedness of their deeds they shall turn away after them and deny him [whom our fathers did praise], even the first Christ whom they crucified and therein sinned a great sin. But this deceiver is not the Christ. [something is wrong here: the sense required is that Israel perceives the wickedness of antichrist and does not follow him.] And when they reject him he shall slay with the sword, and there shall be many martyrs. Then shall the twigs of the fig-tree, that is, the house of Israel, shoot forth: many shall become martyrs at his hand. Enoch and Elias shall be sent to teach them that this is the deceiver which must come into the world and do signs and wonders to deceive. And therefore shall they that die by his hand be martyrs, and shall be reckoned among the good and righteous martyrs who have pleased God in their life.
This passage from the Apocalypse of Peter seems a/ to refer to the Messianic claims of Bar Kochba b/ to be expecting divine intervention against Bar Kochba rather than mere defeat in battle.
Hence Apocalypse of Peter is presumably written c 133 CE
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I try not to believe things about ancient history.


............................

Rubbish, Andrew. The traits that I mentioned are pre-Roman.


You can get information about Mithras from Zoroastrian texts and even the Rigveda. They support the notion that Mithras was a mediator for Ahura Mazda.
You are not justified in using the Rigveda as evidence for Mithraism within the Roman Empire. (At least you should provide justification.)

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Old 06-04-2007, 11:25 AM   #139
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Well, it just occurred to me to ask whether the Romulus festival is
described by Ovid in his Fasti, a poem describing all the religious
festivals at Rome and what went on in them and why, throughout the
year. I knew the Fasti is only extant in its first half, covering
January to June, the remaining months are lost. Hmmmm. Could the
Romulus festival just "happen" to fall in that second half of the
calendar? So I checked. Plutarch says it took place on the Nones of
July (July 7). Curious how that's the first book of the missing half
of the Fasti.”

“Hmmmm” is right! My thanks to Richard.

Earl Doherty
Most scholars hold that Ovid never wrote the second half of the Fasti, certainly there is no evidence of any ancient writer quoting it (unlike the first half). Given that the writing of the Fasti probably overlapped with Ovid's exile he may have been reluctant to celebrate the Caesars in July and August.

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Old 06-04-2007, 11:40 AM   #140
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I am indebted to Richard Carrier for summing up (in an email) several cases of “accidental” loss of books within historians’ accounts in which we should have found some reference to an historical Jesus and other elements in relation to him. I guess coincidence and “sheer accident” reign supreme in support of mythicists in regard to all this missing evidence.
................................
And on a somewhat different subject:

You might recall I told you how in Hippolytus, Refutation of All
Heresies, books 2 and 3 are mysteriously missing. Yet at the end of
book 1 he said he was going to reveal all the mystery religions and
what they teach and then discuss astrology. Book 4 begins astrology,
which means 2 and 3 were about mystery cults--in other words, the one
book (or rather pair of books) that would have told us how much and
which elements the Christians borrowed or adapted from pagan mystery
religions, was curiously ripped out and destroyed. You might also
recall that in various places I have drawn parallels between the
Christ passion, and the myth and public festival of the death and
resurrection of Romulus (in Mark as well as Luke, especially--
curiously, Marcus and Lucius were among the names of those ritually
shouted out at the Romulus festival, as the end of Plutarch's Life of
Romulus attests, Gaius (Caius) being the third, which is also Julius
Caesar's name, as well as Caligula's, but I digress...).
Hippolytus' work was not copied much probably because it is so very rude about Pope Callistus.

Book one survived as a stand alone introduction to Greek philosophy.

A single manuscript of books 4-10 (without 1-3) also survived probably copied by someone uninterested in the prelims and only interested in the core themes.

It is not certain what books 2 and 3 contained, although quite plausibly it was mystery religions. However IMVHO it may have been esoteric information about Egyptian and Babylonian religion.

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