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Old 03-05-2010, 10:19 AM   #21
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Originally Posted by Roger Pearse
The information transmitted in the historical record is fairly straightforward and was summarised by Tertullian, ca. 200, in Adversus Marcionem book 4; that Matthew and John were the apostles of that name, and that Mark and Luke were "apostolic men", in Tertullian's phrase; that they were associates of the apostles. The same narrative appears throughout every discussion of authorship in antiquity.
Do you have any first century, non-biblical, non-Christian, eyewitness evidence that Jesus performed miracles? If the Gospels are true, you should since if Jesus performed many miracles in many places, he would have easily become the biggest celebrity in the entire Middle East.
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Old 03-05-2010, 01:50 PM   #22
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Originally Posted by schriverja View Post
I'm confused, are we treating LOTR as historical?
Nah,
but the NT is about as historical as the LOTR.
:-)


K.
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Old 03-05-2010, 02:46 PM   #23
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Gday,
Buenos Dias.

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Originally Posted by Kapyong View Post
Polycarp
Never claimed to have met Jesus or anyone who did.
Irenaeus claimed Polycarp met discples who met Jesus
Polycarp (who wrote in the early second century A.D.) does mention that the people he wrote to never saw Jesus in the following passage.

Quote:
Polycarp 1:3
though ye saw Him not, ye believe with joy unutterable and full of
glory; unto which joy many desire to enter in; forasmuch as ye know
that it is by grace ye are saved, not of works, but by the will of
God through Jesus Christ.
Polycarp then goes on to remind the people of the words of Jesus in the following passage;


Quote:
Polycarp 2:3
but remembering the words which the Lord spake, as He taught; Judge
not that ye be not judged. Forgive, and it shall be forgiven to
you. Have mercy that ye may receive mercy. With what measure ye
mete, it shall be measured to you again
; and again Blessed are
the poor and they that are persecuted for righteousness' sake, for
theirs is the kingdom of God
Obviously, by the second century many of the alleged original eyewitnesses of Jesus had died by natural causes or during the Roman destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. By the second century apparently many came to believe that Jesus never existed as a real person and was merely a phantom of some kind. Polycarp writes rather harshly of those in the following passage.


Quote:
Polycarp 7:1
For every one who shall not confess that Jesus Christ is come in
the flesh, is antichrist: and whosoever shall not confess the
testimony of the Cross, is of the devil; and whosoever shall pervert
the oracles of the Lord to his own lusts and say that there is
neither resurrection nor judgment, that man is the firstborn of
Satan.
At the very least Polycarp shows us that there was a schism already developing in the early second century between those who believed in a HJ and those who believed in a MJ.
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Old 03-05-2010, 02:54 PM   #24
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Quote:
Originally Posted by schriverja View Post
I'm confused, are we treating LOTR as historical?
Nah,
but the NT is about as historical as the LOTR.
:-)


K.
Tolkein never existed either
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Old 03-05-2010, 05:28 PM   #25
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Originally Posted by Roger Pearse View Post
The demand that the gospels should explicitly tell us about their authors is a slightly curious one; the "Lord of the Rings" contains little about its author, and you will look in vain in most newspaper articles for the biography of the journalists who wrote them.
Diodorus, Curtius, Plutarch, Arrian, Justin are our literary sources for Alexander and they all attempt to establish the credibility of their histories with their audiences by identifying themselves, and very often also by identifying the sources they use. It is reasonable to expect the same of the gospel authors if they also are claimed to be histories.

So why nothing comparable with the earliest gospels? I think we might come close to understanding why by comparing the study of Bernard Levinson in Deuteronomy and the Hermeneutics of Legal Innovation. He writes:

Quote:
In a culture with a curriculum of prestigious and authoritative texts, how are legal innovation and religious transformation possible? The solution is to disclaim authorship and to deny originality. . . . They never speak in their own belated, seventh-century B.C.E. scribal voice. Instead, they defer to the voice of authoritative antiquity. . . (p.34)
If this was how things were when the gospels were first being introduced, the situation that required their anonymity did not last.

I suggest that we only find authorial names being attached to them for the first time in the later second century by Irenaeus who is also interested in creating a genealogy of teachers to define "truth" and another genealogy of teachers to define "error". By this time we have multiple gospels claiming apostolic authorship and it was thought advisable to fight fire with fire and find a new way to establish the credibility of the 4 gospels selected for use by "orthodoxy".


Neil

Tactics of religious innovation

An explanation for the gospels being anonymous
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Old 03-05-2010, 05:40 PM   #26
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Originally Posted by arnoldo View Post
Quote:
Polycarp 7:1
For every one who shall not confess that Jesus Christ is come in
the flesh, is antichrist: and whosoever shall not confess the
testimony of the Cross, is of the devil; and whosoever shall pervert
the oracles of the Lord to his own lusts and say that there is
neither resurrection nor judgment, that man is the firstborn of
Satan.
At the very least Polycarp shows us that there was a schism already developing in the early second century between those who believed in a HJ and those who believed in a MJ.
I don't think Polycarp is addressing a rift between HJ and MJ proponents. The argument then was over the nature of Jesus: flesh or spirit or some other permutation of these. The argument was to be settled over whether Jesus could feel pain or what form of existence he had before his appearance in the flesh, etc. If it were over his historicity they would have been digging out the "original TF" in Josephus or identifying other eyewitnesses and sources of "traditions" etc.
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Old 03-05-2010, 06:16 PM   #27
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It would be an interesting thought experiment for a person like me, who was born after the assassination of Martin Luther King, Jr, to try to assemble a history of MLK Jr using only verbal accounts. The time period from the present to MLK Jr life is roughly the same as the earliest gospel accounts. I wonder how well I (or anyone else) could do, how accurate we would tell MLK Jr's story?

I can hear the Christian argument coming, however, about how people of antiquity were a verbal culture, so their word-of-mouth passing of stories is somehow much more reliable than today, I just don't buy it...
Your thought experiment may be improved and refined. The first official "historical research" concerning the "nation of Christians" was actually conducted in the 4th century by the 1st official Christian archivalist, a man possibly of Jewish descent, called Eusebius of Caesarea. Your thought experiment would need to take place in the year 2263 CE. The new testament was not made popular until its widespread publication in the 4th century, when it was enforced as the emperor's "preferred religion" by means of the emperor's sword.

I dont buy Constantine's propaganda at all. He is backing a three century old event which is either historical or fabricated. The gospels and Paul are presented within the Eusebian packaging as some sort of "historical documents".

But Constantine stands up at the Council of Antioch and flatly states that the birth of Jesus Henry was prophecised by Roman poets in the 1st century BCE, and cites them to the Greek audience at Antioch. Later we learn that people from Antioch --- of the academic classes and philosophers - were subject to to torture at the commands of Constantine. I do not automatically buy the authenticity of anything published in the rule of Constantine, and I reserve the right to be critically skeptical that there were any 300 year old "eyewitnesses".
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Old 03-05-2010, 06:35 PM   #28
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I'm discussing Biblical reliability with a friend online, and he keeps claiming that the authors of the Gospels were eyewitnesses, hence their authority and the truth value of their testimony is based on having actually been present during the events they write about. I'm more familiar with OT origins and criticism so I'm unable to provide a satisfying answer specifically related to Gospel reliability. Can you guys and gals help me out with a layman's response to this popular "eyewitness" hypothesis? Even links to other threads would be helpful. For reference, here are some of his responses to my statements:

Quote:
The writings are for the purpose to show what actually happened, as eyewitness accounts. The nature and intent was nothing else.

Having 4 accounts (how ironic, they look sort of the same?) is not enough? The prophecies of the Old Testament fulfilled in the same man the gospels accounted. The worldwide changes which occurred even in the face of opposition.

Those are different than the Greek and Roman gods, which were usually business tools for economic profit; as well as the fact that everyone had a "genius" then (their own personal god).

The ordinary person will give more thought toward the accounts of Jesus' life and death and resurrection, not just because they are "one of the many religions" but because they are unique.

The claims by Jesus are incredibly more outrageous than all other religious leaders' claims.

No other man in history made so much impact upon the world (many say negatively) and therefore we must consider that perhaps He existed and the things written are possibly true.

While I write these things I consider that no humans today existed past 120 years ago. Everything we know about history rests upon the recorded documentation of the people who lived before us and now are dead. We must not just discredit the resurrection accounts on the basis of it being written by men; 4 men; and then generations even to today who remain pushing the same exact belief as then.
Thanks!
Ask him what evidence he relies on that the authors of the Gospels were eyewitnesses. I'm a Christian, myself, and I'm curious to know.

I personally don't know of any evidence that the authors of the Gospels were eyewitnesses.

Is he aware that the authors of most of the letters included in the NT are in question?
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Old 03-05-2010, 07:06 PM   #29
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Originally Posted by Cege View Post

Ask him what evidence he relies on that the authors of the Gospels were eyewitnesses. I'm a Christian, myself, and I'm curious to know.

I personally don't know of any evidence that the authors of the Gospels were eyewitnesses.
I've heard that Mark's gospel was written by an eyewitness, Mark himself, who (presumably compelled by the criterion of embarrassment to record it) was the one who fled naked at the arrest of Jesus. We further read that the observation in the same Gospel that the grass 5000 people sat on was "green" is also evidence of eyewitness reportage. And the fact that Matthew repeats so much of Mark surely demonstrates he trusted his words as solid eyewitness testimony too, yes?

Neil
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Old 03-05-2010, 10:42 PM   #30
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I'm discussing Biblical reliability with a friend online, and he keeps claiming that the authors of the Gospels were eyewitnesses, hence their authority and the truth value of their testimony is based on having actually been present during the events they write about.
You are wasting your time trying to have a rational discussion with someone who thinks that 2000 year old books written by a half dozen people is sufficient evidence of some dude walking on water and rising from the dead.

No-doubt, your adversary would dismiss out of hand similar modern nonsense claims. Your friend's beliefs are not founded on reason, they are the result of conditioning, emotional appeals, and social pressure.

These same tools are what you must use.
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