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Old 09-29-2008, 06:51 PM   #81
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post
Yes, in the 4th century, there were people who did not speak Greek or Latin. They were not illiterate, just not fluent in those two languages. People who do not speak English today are not illiterate - they just speak other languages.

But this story about Peter seems to be based on what we read in the gospels - that Jesus' disciples were simple Aramaic-speaking Jewish proletarians. If they were, they would not have been fluent in Greek or Latin, and, like that scene in Acts 2, the holy spirit would have given them the ability to communicate in multiple languages.

I don't see any parody here - I see the use of themes from another work, which is common, but there is no mockery of Peter or any Christian.
Toto,

Tradition has it that the new testament was authored by the disciples in bad greek for a greek audience. How can Philip do this if the author of the Acts of Philip admits that Philip cannot understand either greek or latin? Oh, ok, they umm "spoke instead in umm tongues". Sure. This is not ancient history.

People in the fourth century who knew neither Latin or Greek, unfortunately as bigotted as it may sound toto, these same people would have been looked upon, from the Roman emperor and his greek speaking philosophers, such as Sopater whom Constantine had executed for example, from the position of Eusebius and the entire succession of his continuators in greek and latin, as illiterate. We are looking down the barrel of a satire.

Best wishes,


Pete
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Old 09-29-2008, 07:35 PM   #82
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Toto,

Tradition has it that the new testament was authored by the disciples in bad greek for a greek audience.
Tradition? There is no such ancient tradition. There were European scholars who did not understand that the gospels were written in Koine Greek, which is a separate language from classical Greek, so they assumed that it was "bad Greek."

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How can Philip do this if the author of the Acts of Philip admits that Philip cannot understand either greek or latin? Oh, ok, they umm "spoke instead in umm tongues". Sure. This is not ancient history.
That's why I think that the Gospel of Philip is relying on the canonical gospel stories, from which one might assume that Peter was an illiterate speaker of Aramaic, who required Mark to translate for him.

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People in the fourth century who knew neither Latin or Greek, unfortunately as bigotted as it may sound toto, these same people would have been looked upon, from the Roman emperor and his greek speaking philosophers, such as Sopater whom Constantine had executed for example, from the position of Eusebius and the entire succession of his continuators in greek and latin, as illiterate.
Unless, of course, they saw this as part of a story.

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We are looking down the barrel of a satire.

Best wishes,


Pete
So where is the humor?
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Old 09-29-2008, 07:38 PM   #83
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MM,

There were hundreds perhaps thousands of small cults in the Roman Empire. Constantine and Eusebius could have chosen any of them for his new religion. Many of those cults must have had various gospels that he could have revised for his purposes.

The fact that there is no reasonable archeological evidence for the existence of Christianity before Constantine, does not prove that there was not some small Christian cult in Rome.

If there really were persecutions under Diocletian and Galerius 303-311, (no archeological evidence or copies of the edicts exist) then all Christian literature was probably burned or confiscated. It would have been easy to select from the confiscated books and revise them to fit Constantine and Eusebius purposes.

Why do you think it is more likely that Constantine and Eusebius invented the Christian story in whole rather then rewriting existing gospels of some tiny Christian cult for their own purposes?
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Old 09-29-2008, 08:06 PM   #84
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MM, Thanks for answering, but You need to get into the statistics.

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Originally Posted by patcleaver View Post
Based on the C14 analysis, gJudas was probably written before 290.
The gJudas C14 chronology, as I have stated numerously, is quite specific in the figure of 290 CE plus or minus 60 years. The gThomas C14 chronology has the similar error bar added to 348 CE of plus or minus 60 years. Take an average and you get 319 CE plus or minus 60 years. You are not addressing the error bars in the C14 analysis.

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If it was a satire of the Gospels then they would have had to exist at least a few years before gJudas was written. In your hypotheses, how do you account for the Gospels probably existing at least 16 years before Constantine came to power in 306.
See the explanation above. The 2 X C14 citations have with them an associated error bar of plus or minus 60 years.
The C14 date ranges are not just "error bands". The C14 analysis defines a probability distribution. The +- 60 years is the 95% limit. Even though 319 is within the band, it is very unlikely that the date was as late as 319. I can not do the calculations without my old statistics book, but its probably less then 10%.

It is also highly unlikely that the gThomas dated 345 was from as early as 319, and even more unlikely that both of these things are true.

Also, its highly unlikely that we have the earliest copy of the gJudas. The C14 date of this copy of the gJudas just represents the latest date that the gJudas could have been written.
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Old 09-29-2008, 08:42 PM   #85
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avi, you seem to have a working knowledge of this stuff. please check the following:

The C14 date for the gJudas 290 +- 60 years is reported to be at 95% confidence (two standard deviations). The C14 date of the gThomas is similarly reported to be 348 +- 60 years.

One standard deviation +- 30 years would be a 68% confidence

What is the probability that:
1) The actual date of the gJudas is 320 or later = 16%.
2) The actual date of the gThomas 328 or earlier = 16%.
3) That both 1 and 2 are true about = 2.5%
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Old 09-29-2008, 09:13 PM   #86
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[QUOTE=Toto;5578974]
Quote:
Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
...
People in the fourth century who knew neither Latin or Greek, unfortunately as bigotted as it may sound toto, these same people would have been looked upon, from the Roman emperor and his greek speaking philosophers, such as Sopater whom Constantine had executed for example, from the position of Eusebius and the entire succession of his continuators in greek and latin, as illiterate.



Unless, of course, they saw this as part of a story.

Quote:
We are looking down the barrel of a satire.
So where is the humor?
Dear Toto,

Please try for one moment what it would have been like standing in the shoes of people like Crispus, Arius of Alexandria, and the academic pythagorean philosopher and some form of old lineage priest, Sopater. Each of these people were more or less executed by Constantine. Imagine yourself to be politically opposed to any dictator or malevolent despot of your choice. In such a circumstance you would be looking down the barrel of being accused of sedition and treachery against the authority of the boss.

And such was the status of both the authors, and the books themselves, known as the apochrypha, that they were outlawed and forbidden and and far worse.

The humor in the apochryphal NT literature rests in characteristic satire of the corresponding characters (as some form of Constantinian cast) in the NT canon. The humour can only be understood if we ourselves place ourselves back in the fourth century, under the oppressive military rule of Constantine, who was destroying the ancient architecture and he ancient traditons. It was not a nice epoch and one which understandably greatly contributed to the dark ages, so to speak.

Do I need to cite Ammianus and the torture of the upper classes, the excessive taxation, the book burning, the temple destruction, the mass persection and intollerance of the imperial christian regime of the mid-to-end fourth century? Do not dismiss Rassias' estimates on this. And have you checked the Extracts from the Codex Theodosianus (313 to 453 CE) .

The satire is the same as Julian's satire, only earlier. The satire was directed against the christian state regime which had suddenly appeared at the gathering of Constantine's 318 bishops at Nicaea and trhe xpulsion of Arius of Alexandria from all future considerations. The satire was directed against the fiction of a despot.

Best wishes,


Pete
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Old 09-29-2008, 09:42 PM   #87
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Originally Posted by patcleaver View Post
MM,

There were hundreds perhaps thousands of small cults in the Roman Empire. Constantine and Eusebius could have chosen any of them for his new religion. Many of those cults must have had various gospels that he could have revised for his purposes.

The fact that there is no reasonable archeological evidence for the existence of Christianity before Constantine, does not prove that there was not some small Christian cult in Rome.
Dear Patcleaver,

I agree with you on this matter. However having said this, I need to add that until such evidence is forthcoming, it is not an unreasonable thing to do, to consider that the new testament was in fact written under the sponsorship of Constantine the Great, and that the subsequently victorius christian regime destroyed much evidence which would expose this fraud.

Quote:
If there really were persecutions under Diocletian and Galerius 303-311, (no archeological evidence or copies of the edicts exist) then all Christian literature was probably burned or confiscated. It would have been easy to select from the confiscated books and revise them to fit Constantine and Eusebius purposes.
In that case we need to understand that the books of the followers of the Iranian prophet Mani were so treated by Diocletian. The Manichaean persecutions continued well into the fifth century. They had an historical base with the persians, and with Diocletian. There is independent evidence of this, but no independent attestation to any "christian persecution".


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Why do you think it is more likely that Constantine and Eusebius invented the Christian story in whole rather then rewriting existing gospels of some tiny Christian cult for their own purposes?
Why think small if you are going to be the biggest thug on the planet? Especially if you already hold the ancient city of Rome, the hub of the ROman empire in all other things but the eastern gold, gold, gold.... The Pontifex Maximus was permitted to think big.

He had the cash.

Perhaps the gospel of John was fabricated from the long last books of Apollonius of Tyana, who may well have written about the logos, but the other three eyewitness accounts are simply a porridge of fiction assembled from the LXX and other pagan wisdom literature. Eusebius adds the histories and ready-reckoners, atlas's, guides, compendiums, horror stories to scare the children, etc, etc.

The wisdom held in the NT is certainly older than the fourth century and has been mentioned by Philo and others earlier, such as Heraclitus. However I am going to continue to dispute that the NT canon is of Constantinian invention and chronology, and that the NT apochrypha immediately appeared after 324 and 325 CE as seditious satirical parody of Jesus and the various acts and gospels of the twelve (or was it 13?) apostles.

Best wishes,


Pete
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Old 09-29-2008, 09:49 PM   #88
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Originally Posted by patcleaver View Post
MM, Thanks for answering, but You need to get into the statistics.

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Originally Posted by mountainman View Post

The gJudas C14 chronology, as I have stated numerously, is quite specific in the figure of 290 CE plus or minus 60 years. The gThomas C14 chronology has the similar error bar added to 348 CE of plus or minus 60 years. Take an average and you get 319 CE plus or minus 60 years. You are not addressing the error bars in the C14 analysis.



See the explanation above. The 2 X C14 citations have with them an associated error bar of plus or minus 60 years.
The C14 date ranges are not just "error bands". The C14 analysis defines a probability distribution. The +- 60 years is the 95% limit. Even though 319 is within the band, it is very unlikely that the date was as late as 319. I can not do the calculations without my old statistics book, but its probably less then 10%.
The estimate is just that. We need to be guided by it.

Quote:
It is also highly unlikely that the gThomas dated 345 was from as early as 319, and even more unlikely that both of these things are true.

Also, its highly unlikely that we have the earliest copy of the gJudas. The C14 date of this copy of the gJudas just represents the latest date that the gJudas could have been written.
The likelihoods or otherwise of earlier versions of these texts is in the strict sense conjectural. We need to establish this as a separate issue and distinct from what the C14 is trying to tell us.

In which century do you think people started carring around codices for example Pat, rather than scrolls? Were scrolls or codices being transported by hand in the first century? In the 2nd? In the 3rd? We know there were lavish codex publications by the fourth.



Best wishes,


Pete
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Old 10-04-2008, 05:09 AM   #89
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However having said this, I need to add that until such evidence is forthcoming, it is not an unreasonable thing to do, to consider that the new testament was in fact written under the sponsorship of Constantine the Great, and that the subsequently victorius christian regime destroyed much evidence which would expose this fraud.
You have given no reason to consider thus, and if there is no reason to do so, then it is an unreasonable thing to do.
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Old 10-06-2008, 06:28 AM   #90
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I agree with you on this matter. However having said this, I need to add that until such evidence is forthcoming, it is not an unreasonable thing to do, to consider that the new testament was in fact written under the sponsorship of Constantine the Great, and that the subsequently victorius christian regime destroyed much evidence which would expose this fraud.
Do you include all the non-canonical material in this scenario? There seems to have been more material that was left out of the NT than was eventually included. Would it all have been invented at the same time, then sorted through as to its Catholicity? [sorry if you already answered this]
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