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Old 04-29-2005, 09:56 AM   #101
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Originally Posted by spin
This is irrelevant. Besides they seemed to have used several names, Galileans, Nazoreans, the way, etc. Supposedly the name christian was given to them by gentiles.
er, not only did the gentiles call these people Christians but somehow an entire solar cult developed with a cross and worship on Sundays, etc...then worshipping the dark MARY and fair Mary...you still have not provided sufficient evidence of Mary from Miriam...

from O.Fr. marier, from L. maritare "to wed, marry, give in marriage," from maritus "married man, husband," of uncertain origin, perhaps ult. from "provided with a *mari," a young woman, from PIE base *meri- "young wife," akin to *meryo- "young man" (cf. Skt. marya- "young man, suitor").


and the latin Mari which comes from "Mas" does NOT come from "manno" or "manu" of Sanskrit, but Marya which also means "young man" in Sanskrit and sounds and means more like Mari as well...

and the meaning of Mary (young woman) and Madonna(my dominating lady) are similar BUT your derivation of Mary from the Hebrew Miriam which in fact means rebellious or bitter in Hebrew seems both theologically and etymologically unlikely.

besides, if you look at the Gospels, Jesus doesn't even want to see his mother.

So this neo-Christian hullabaloo about the "special" relationship of Christ to his mother is also not a part of the gospels, but a recognized part of early Christianity, about the special relationship of the Son of the Sun and the mother of the son of the Sun.

you must be able to explain all the discrepencies and how this can possibly relate to traditional Judaic practices.



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Yahweh had a consort in early Judaism. Asherah, the queen of heaven.


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well it seems obvious to me by that passage in Jeremiah that Yahweh and Asherah had a bitter separation...
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Old 04-29-2005, 10:34 AM   #102
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Madonna, she's Italian?...here I thought she was American singer
Louise Veronica Ciccone? She may have been born in America.
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Old 04-29-2005, 11:06 AM   #103
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Originally Posted by Dharma
er, not only did the gentiles call these people Christians but somehow an entire solar cult developed with a cross and worship on Sundays, etc...then worshipping the dark MARY and fair Mary...you still have not provided sufficient evidence of Mary from Miriam...

from O.Fr. marier, from L. maritare "to wed, marry, give in marriage," from maritus "married man, husband," of uncertain origin, perhaps ult. from "provided with a *mari," a young woman, from PIE base *meri- "young wife," akin to *meryo- "young man" (cf. Skt. marya- "young man, suitor").
(Can you cite me one explicit use of "mari" in Latin literature?)

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Originally Posted by Dharma
and the latin Mari which comes from "Mas" does NOT come from "manno" or "manu" of Sanskrit, but Marya which also means "young man" in Sanskrit and sounds and means more like Mari as well...

and the meaning of Mary (young woman) and Madonna(my dominating lady) are similar BUT your derivation of Mary from the Hebrew Miriam which in fact means rebellious or bitter in Hebrew seems both theologically and etymologically unlikely.
There is not much point in regurgitating all this sludge. Most of it has all been dealt with.

Just one more point. The Peshitta uses MRYM for the nt maria.

And this is hilarious: "Madonna(my dominating lady)". Why muck around with things you are not trained to muck around with? First, domina is merely the feminine form of dominis, meaning "lord", so domina in Latin is a title given to a noble woman (here). Donna is the Italian form of domina and simply means "woman", madonna means "my woman" or "my lady". Please stop diddling about with things you need to study before speaking about.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
besides, if you look at the Gospels, Jesus doesn't even want to see his mother.
Yeah, but so what? Yet another non sequitur.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
So this neo-Christian hullabaloo about the "special" relationship of Christ to his mother is also not a part of the gospels, but a recognized part of early Christianity, about the special relationship of the Son of the Sun and the mother of the son of the Sun.
And not even part of non-catholic christianity. Just more of your irrelevance.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
you must be able to explain all the discrepencies and how this can possibly relate to traditional Judaic practices.
The only thing I see is you running all over the place.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
well it seems obvious to me by that passage in Jeremiah that Yahweh and Asherah had a bitter separation...
Well? Whenever Joshua was written, we have Joshua placing a pillar, symbol of the male god, under the tree, symbol of Asherah, in the sanctuary of the Lord. Things tend to mutate. Asherah's tree ends up the menorah.


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Old 04-29-2005, 11:08 AM   #104
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Louise Veronica Ciccone? She may have been born in America.
If you say so, she ain't quite my style…I'd rather listen to Rammstein.

Next you'll be telling me that the Bank of America has Italian roots...
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Old 04-30-2005, 01:45 PM   #105
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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
I think you are here demonstrating the damage that reason can do to your faith. Once you start trying to make your beliefs resaonable, you are in danger of no longer holding to those beliefs.

I suggest you go back to reading the bible and believing in it, period. Life will be a lot simpler if you do that.

Your suggestion was noted. I have read the Bible and believe in it.Period, which has made my life alot simpler. Thank you

What's ironic though, is that I was trying to explain Biblical Scripture to you and you wrote that post? Dude...you made me chuckle..Thanks bro
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Old 04-30-2005, 01:47 PM   #106
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Oh, BTW, Dharma..Listen to Spin,, X2..X3?
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Old 05-01-2005, 12:38 AM   #107
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One derivation comes from the Arabic "ruham" which means many water drops, however, we would think that this would be corrected in the Quran, but the Quran continues with Ibrahim not Ibrahum.
Ruham?!!! :huh:

Rahim in arabic means merciful. So by simple yet unfaithful manipulation, you can say it means "merciful father."
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Old 05-01-2005, 11:34 AM   #108
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Originally Posted by spin
(Can you cite me one explicit use of "mari" in Latin literature?)
can you site me one explicit use of "christos" in pre-Christian Greek literature? If the Messiach is supposed to be the King of Israel, why wouldn't Greeks simply use the Greek word for King or Greek word for savior or simply say "savior king" which is equivalent to what the Messiach actually does? Again, it seems that the etymology you base your research on seems made up to simply justify that the myth of Yeshua is Judaic when it isn't. My argument is that someone was trying to convert the Jews using their own literature to try to explain certain Jewish concepts using vocabulary of a different language.

And this is nothing strange that in certain dialects "mari" would continue to be used to mean woman but not be necessarily in common usage.

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There is not much point in regurgitating all this sludge. Most of it has all been dealt with.

Just one more point. The Peshitta uses MRYM for the nt maria.
Hmm, let's see, the Romans ruled that area and were mentioned directly in the New Testament and you even have a section called the "Romans"...now why would I careabout their version? Aramaic was the lingua franca of the region under the long gone Persian Empire. Now one would use standard logic and realize that the New Testament is more part of the Roman Catholic church (historically the Jesus story occured under Roman rule) than it is a part of the Eastern Church.

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And this is hilarious: "Madonna(my dominating lady)". Why muck around with things you are not trained to muck around with? First, domina is merely the feminine form of dominis, meaning "lord", so domina in Latin is a title given to a noble woman
Madonna simply means "my lady" and is used as such and similarly Mari in it's pre-latin roots means lady, noble lady. And this is nothing strange that in certain dialects "mari" would continue to be used to mean woman but not be necessarily in common usage.

Mari meaning young woman would also be a more correct translation of the Hebrew prophecy where it was a young woman would give birth to the messiach...NOT necessarily a virgin.

(here). Donna is the Italian form of domina and simply means "woman", madonna means "my woman" or "my lady". Please stop diddling about with things you need to study before speaking about.



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And not even part of non-catholic christianity. Just more of your irrelevance.
Roman Catholicism? Oh, I forgot Jesus lived under the Roman Empire...ohh, I wonder why the Romans and their writings are more important?
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Old 05-01-2005, 11:39 AM   #109
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Originally Posted by felix
Ruham?!!! :huh:

Rahim in arabic means merciful. So by simple yet unfaithful manipulation, you can say it means "merciful father."
very different from the Biblical definition of Abraham to mean a "father of multitudes" or "father of many nations"...one would think that, ahem, holy texts would concur on very important words.
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Old 05-01-2005, 11:51 AM   #110
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can you site me one explicit use of "christos" in pre-Christian Greek literature?
All throughout the LXX. The Jews coined this use of the term.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
If the Messiach is supposed to be the King of Israel, why wouldn't Greeks simply use the Greek word for King or Greek word for savior or simply say "savior king" which is equivalent to what the Messiach actually does?
The Jewish translators attempted to translate the idea.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
Again, it seems that the etymology you base your research on seems made up to simply justify that the myth of Yeshua is Judaic when it isn't.
Which etymology are you talking about. We were talking about Maria.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
And this is nothing strange that in certain dialects "mari" would continue to be used to mean woman but not be necessarily in common usage.
I'm still waiting on one example. Cough up or be quiet.

You persist in refusing to deal withthe clear etymological trajectory I have provided you for the name Mary. You are saying that you have no response. Zippo. Zilch. Nada. You are just continuing for the sake of arguing.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
The Peshitta uses MRYM for the nt maria.
Hmm, let's see, the Romans ruled that area and were mentioned directly in the New Testament and you even have a section called the "Romans"...now why would I careabout their version? Aramaic was the lingua franca of the region under the long gone Persian Empire. Now one would use standard logic and realize that the New Testament is more part of the Roman Catholic church (historically the Jesus story occured under Roman rule) than it is a part of the Eastern Church.
I can't follow this.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
Madonna simply means "my lady" and is used as such and similarly Mari in it's pre-latin roots means lady, noble lady.
You're back to regurgitating. You need to demonstrate your fantasies.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
And this is nothing strange that in certain dialects "mari" would continue to be used to mean woman but not be necessarily in common usage.

Mari meaning young woman would also be a more correct translation of the Hebrew prophecy where it was a young woman would give birth to the messiach...NOT necessarily a virgin.
You still haven't given any evidence for this, your fantasy.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
Roman Catholicism? Oh, I forgot Jesus lived under the Roman Empire...
Christianity existed for a century or more of development before it got placed within the constraints of the Roman church.

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Originally Posted by Dharma
ohh, I wonder why the Romans and their writings are more important?
A history of early christianity might be useful for your further reading.

Dharma, as I don't think you are ever going to get any more coherent, I see no benefit in dealing with your reveries.


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