Freethought & Rationalism Archive

04-30-2001, 08:07 AM

Quote:

<font face="Verdana, Arial" size="2">Originally posted by Tercel:

Quote:

Originally posted by rodahi:
Look at the quotes again. One gives a date of 6th century BCE, and the other implies a date around or AFTER the time of Alexander the Great. Since Alexander died in the 4th century BCE, the sources are discrepant by two hundred years.

rodahi</font>

I thought that was what you were thinking, but I decided to give you the benefit of doubt.
Shall we look more closely?

Quote:

<font face="Verdana, Arial" size="2">The Oxford Companion to the Bible states the following: "According to ancient historians such as Herodotus and Diodorus Siculus, various kinds of crucifixion...were used by the Assyrians, Scythians, Phoenicians, and Persians. The practice of crucifixion was taken over by Alexander the Great and his successors, and especially by the Romans..."</font>

For Alexander to be able to 'take over' the practice it must have been around before he was. Thus we can definitely say that the practice of crucifixion predates Alexander, meaning there is no conflict of information.

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I am not sure why it makes much difference when the Romans began crucifying criminals, but for the sake of argument, look at the quote again. WHICH peoples used crucifixion BEFORE Alexander? Answer: Assyrians, Scythians, Phoenicians, and Persians. Who took it up AFTER Alexander? Answer: The Romans.

The original statement was the following: "Hello everyone, I just would like to know if anyone know approx when Roman crucifixion started. A book or article on the web would be a bonus. Thank You"

One source says around the 6th century BCE, and the other says around the 4th century BCE. That means the sources are discrepant by two centuries.

rodahi

[This message has been edited by rodahi (edited April 30, 2001).]

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