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Old 04-17-2001, 01:04 PM   #1
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Post Geneology of Mary?

I need to know if the mother of Jesus was of the line of David or of another line. Does anyone know?
 
Old 04-17-2001, 01:18 PM   #2
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The emphasis being placed on Joseph's side indicates that it was from his side and not Mary's side. It also helps build an argument that the original intention of the writer was to prove Jesus' seed coming from Joseph's side showing that the writer rejected the Virgin birth and at some point later the virgin birth was added but the dummies forgot to substitute out the lineage records.
 
Old 04-17-2001, 01:20 PM   #3
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I seem to recall... wasn't Mary Elizabeth's cousin, and thus of the Aaronic line?

Michael
 
Old 04-17-2001, 04:49 PM   #4
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Correct: Mary is a Levite. Some scholars believe that Luke was smart enough to realize that many Jews of the era were expecting a messiah in the line of Aaron and David, hence Jesus' descent from both lines in Luke.

According to several non-canonical texts, Mary's parents were Anna and Joachim.
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Old 04-17-2001, 06:47 PM   #5
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Quote:
<font face="Verdana, Arial" size="2">Originally posted by Foxhole Atheist:
I need to know if the mother of Jesus was of the line of David or of another line. Does anyone know?</font>
While I do not understand why you "need to know" I will answer your question to see if indeed atheists live in foxholes. My hunch here is that they are impoverished believers, .

Mary was the woman identity of the man called Joseph who was the upright Jew and carpenter that went to Bethlehem (House of Bread) to give an account of himself.

Joseph was "beyond theology" wherefore he was no longer rational and was so led to his prior state of existence (non-rational) or as animal man without a functioning faculty of reason when his rebirth took place in this now empty lymbic mind.

This means that his rebirth was incipient from God and not from carnal desire as soooo many are here in N.America (Jn.1:13).

So yes, Jesus was of the line of David and Mary was also of the line of David because she was the female part of the androgyne such as the man that become known as Joseph was created ("male and female he created them", androgyne and plural to indicate that we too are androgyne at creation and therefore male-and-female to become either male or female after conception). Note here that creation is not equal to conception because essence precedes existence and only the essence is created.

There was no room at the inn, the stable which later because the tomb hewn by Joseph as if out of rock, the absense of Joseph when the Magi arrived juxtaposed with the presense of Joseph when the shepherds arrived, the ox and the mule in the nativity scene and many others are all evidence for my induction story.

So the bible writers were right after all and before we call others wrong we should first make sure we are right.

Amos



[This message has been edited by Amos123 (edited April 17, 2001).]
 
Old 04-17-2001, 07:23 PM   #6
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Amos, Jn 1:13 refers to the followers of Jesus after hearing and accepting him as savior, based on “Faith” in the resurrection. So this could not apply to his father, nor any living being before his death. It would have been impossible.
 
Old 04-17-2001, 07:34 PM   #7
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<font face="Verdana, Arial" size="2">Originally posted by critical thinking made ez:
Amos, Jn 1:13 refers to the followers of Jesus after hearing and accepting him as savior, based on “Faith” in the resurrection. So this could not apply to his father, nor any living being before his death. It would have been impossible.</font>
You means to say that there is an account of history in the bible???? His death? What about his resurrection?

In my opinion there are only two words that are to be taken as "real" and they are so indicated with the words real as in "real food" and "real drink."

Amos
 
Old 04-17-2001, 07:59 PM   #8
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It's called interpolation, a common tactic in fraud and the Bible.
 
Old 04-18-2001, 05:54 AM   #9
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Amos:

I am not an impoverished believer. I am, more correctly, a non-believer. Period.

Questions?

How does a man have a "woman identity"? Is this more wordsmithing? This implication of being one and the same is a little fishy I think. Androgyne? I know some very weird interpretations of the bible come forth on occasion, but this is the best one yet.

Anyhow, I'm of the opinion that Mary was of the line of Aaron.

 
Old 04-18-2001, 06:01 AM   #10
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The reason I've been asking as to the lineage of Mary is:

Acts 13:23
"Of this man's seed [David's] hath God, according to his promise, raised unto Israel a Saviour, Jesus."
Rom.1:3
"Concerning his son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh."
2 Tim.2:8
"Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David ...."
Heb.2:16
"For verily he [Jesus] took not on him the nature of angels, but he took on him the seed of Abraham."
Rev.22:16
"I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David."


Lk.1:31-35
"And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring for a son, and shalt call his name Jesus .... Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be seeing I know not a man. And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee."

These prophesies indicate that the messiah, Jesus, will be of the line of David. And although Joseph is of the line of David, he is not the father of Jesus.

From what I have been able to determine from the genealogies in the bible, all of those listed are of the male lines with some of the more noted women being mentioned in passing.

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