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Old 05-03-2001, 03:47 PM   #1
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Post Irrefutable Fallible Scriptures

The following 2 biblical passages prove, I believe, that the Bible is fallible. These 2 passages could NOT have been written by an omniscient God. My arguments are not speculative but well known fact. My profession as a physician allows some authority on these verses although I am not a gynecologist. I have not seen these verses "error" lists, but as a physician they are powerful.

1) Lev.15:25 "'When a woman's discharge of blood flows many days not at the time of her menstruation, or if it flows beyond the time of her menstruation, all the days of her discharge of impurity will be like the days of her menstruation-she is unclean. 15:28 "'If she becomes clean from her discharge, then she is to count off for herself seven days, and afterward she will be clean. 15:29 Then on the eighth day she must take for herself two turtledoves or two young pigeons and she must bring them to the priest at the doorway of the tent of meeting, 15:30 and the priest is to make one a SIN OFFERING and the other a burnt offering.38 So the priest is to make ATONEMENT for her before the Lord from her discharge of impurity.

COMMENT- This describes an unfortunate women who has dysfunctional uterine bleeding. They obviously thought she bled due to sin which is not surprising considering their lack of medical knowledge. However, an omniscient God would be aware as we are that this condition can be due to a host of factors outside of the womens control such as uterine cancer or hormonal imbalance. It makes no sense for God and is unjust to say that the women must atone for sin and bring an offering for a medical condition out of her control. Just think of the frustration this must have caused the women.

2) 13 IF any man takes a wife and goes in to her and then turns against her,
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and charges her with shameful deeds and publicly defames her, and says, "I took this woman, but when I came near her, I did not find her a virgin,'
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then the girl's father and her mother shall take and bring out the EVIDENCE of the girl's virginity to the elders of the city at the gate.
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""The girl's father shall say to the elders, "I gave my daughter to this man for a wife, but he turned against her;
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and behold, he has charged her with shameful deeds, saying, ""I did not find your daughter a virgin.'' But this is the evidence of my daughter's virginity.' And they shall spread the garment before the elders of the city.
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""But if this charge is true, that the girl was not found a virgin,
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then they shall bring out the girl to the doorway of her father's house, and the men of her city shall STONE HER TO DEATH because she has committed an act of folly in Israel by playing the harlot in her father's house; thus you shall purge the evil from among you.

COMMENT: There is no absolute evidence of virginity or lack thereof. In this passage, they refer to a garment stained with blood secondary to hymenal rupture. They didn't know better. We and an omniscient God would know that not all women have hymenal bleeding the first time they have intercourse. Some women have congenital absence of the hymen or small hymens. Others tear it in childhood accidentally. The penalty for lack of proof is death. With that level of punishment, the proof must be abolute. This is not.
I wonder how many died because of such nonsense.

Funny verse for the day:
Lev.20:15 If a man has sexual intercourse with any animal, he must be put to death, and you must kill the animal. 20:16 If a woman approaches any animal to have sexual intercourse with it, you must kill the woman, and the animal must be put to death; their blood guilt is on themselves.

KILL THE ANIMAL TOO!!!

 
Old 05-03-2001, 07:42 PM   #2
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I think you make an excellent point here, doc. It puts me in mind of this little tidbit:

Leviticus 14:1-9
1 And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, 2 This shall be the law of the leper in the day of his cleansing: He shall be brought unto the priest: 3 And the priest shall go forth out of the camp; and the priest shall look, and, behold, if the plague of leprosy be healed in the leper; 4 Then shall the priest command to take for him that is to be cleansed two birds alive and clean, and cedar wood, and scarlet, and hyssop: 5 And the priest shall command that one of the birds be killed in an earthen vessel over running water: 6 As for the living bird, he shall take it, and the cedar wood, and the scarlet, and the hyssop, and shall dip them and the living bird in the blood of the bird that was killed over the running water: 7 And he shall sprinkle upon him that is to be cleansed from the leprosy seven times, and shall pronounce him clean, and shall let the living bird loose into the open field. 8 And he that is to be cleansed shall wash his clothes, and shave off all his hair, and wash himself in water, that he may be clean: and after that he shall come into the camp, and shall tarry abroad out of his tent seven days. 9 But it shall be on the seventh day, that he shall shave all his hair off his head and his beard and his eyebrows, even all his hair he shall shave off: and he shall wash his clothes, also he shall wash his flesh in water, and he shall be clean.

As a physician, do you feel this procedure would cure leprosy?
 
Old 05-04-2001, 12:03 AM   #3
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Great a Doc to answer one of my previous posts on the same subject.

In Lev same chapters, it states that a man will go to hell if he has sex with is wife while she is on her period. Now, I often start my wife's bleeding when we have intercourse, she isn't too sure of the exact time she will start but it seems I usually get it going earlier that it may have occured if we wern't having sex around that time.


I can't imagine that a married man (Moses) who wrote this stuff never had sex with his wife only to later discover blood drops afterwards. Only a Single man without much sex experience could have wrote Lev. if this is common to men and women. Of course an all knowing God could never have written such BS. Please give me your input.

[This message has been edited by critical thinking made ez (edited May 04, 2001).]
 
Old 05-04-2001, 05:47 AM   #4
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Responses-

1) As best I can tell and from looking at a few commentaries the passage on leprosy in Lev gives instructions for ceremonial cleansing for those who have gotten over their problem.
The Hebrew word for leprosy refers to many types of skin diseases and not just leprosy that we know today and that was discovered to be a bacterial infection in 1873.
However, it appears that the dominate thought for a lot of diseases in the O.T. is that it was due to sin, thus the sin offerings and cleansings.

2) As far as sex occurring at the beginning of menstruation, I think that is a common experience for most married people and is not unclean or morally dirty or medically dangerous. Does this indicate the writer of the books (probably not Moses) was single? I don't know. A lot of the laws allegedly spoken by God are non-sensical. I do not know what the whole hangup is with all the uncleaness. Every time a man and a women had sex, they were declared unclean. No wonder the puritannical attitudes toward sex developed.
The penalty for sex during mestruation is different in Lev. and Deut. In Lev it is 7 days of uncleaness, in Deut, it is being "cut off" whatever that means but I doubt it means going to hell since hell is not a concept really known in the Pentateuch.
 
Old 05-04-2001, 07:45 AM   #5
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Thanks for clearing that up. I didn't think that all married men in the Lev time should be cut off from the people for something that is going to happen to most of them. Then the equate that type of sin into the same class as adultry, homosexuality, beastiality and incest. It then says (Lev 18:30 "do not commit any one of these sins." As opposed to just an unclean type sin that everyone did commit but that was never commanded not to commit.


Quote:
<font face="Verdana, Arial" size="2">Originally posted by doc58:
Responses-


The penalty for sex during mestruation is different in Lev. and Deut. In Lev it is 7 days of uncleaness, in Deut, it is being "cut off" whatever that means but I doubt it means going to hell since hell is not a concept really known in the Pentateuch.
</font>
My reference to Hell was due to the New Testament interpretation. Since the other sins listed in the same chapter in Lev. including Homosexual acts, adultry, etc. were indeed punished by being "cut off". But in Paul's writings, these people commiting these type sins were later declared to "not enter into Heaven", you have to assume that means they go to Hell. (from a christian stand point)

 
 

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