Freethought & Rationalism Archive

06-12-2001, 06:26 PM

This has probably been done to death, but it always amuses me how the NT authors took OT lines out of context to manufacture prophecies of Jesus 'Christ.'

Quote:

<font face="Verdana, Arial" size="2">According to Matt.2 Verses 14 to 15

[14] When he arose, he took the young child and his mother by night, and departed into Egypt:
[15] And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son.</font>

However, looking at the source of this 'prophecy':

Quote:

<font face="Verdana, Arial" size="2">Hos.11 Verses 1 to 2

[1] When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and called my son out of Egypt.
[2] As they (the RSV uses 'I') called them, so they went from them: they sacrificed unto Baalim, and burned incense to graven images.</font>

The rest of the chapter talks of how 'Israel' won't obey the laws, and how God will treat them.

Does this mean that Jesus "sacrificed unto Baalim, and burned incense to graven images?"

[This message has been edited by Pitshade (edited June 12, 2001).]

06-12-2001, 10:07 PM

This is due to a certain phenomenon which is called: DOUBLE FULFILLMENT

If the prophecies were any less vague, nobody would believe that they weren't deliberately fulfilled by the gospel writers. God did a fine job after all of signing his name, eh?

[This message has been edited by matt (edited June 12, 2001).]

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06-12-2001, 10:07 PM	#2
Guest Posts: n/a	This is due to a certain phenomenon which is called: DOUBLE FULFILLMENT If the prophecies were any less vague, nobody would believe that they weren't deliberately fulfilled by the gospel writers. God did a fine job after all of signing his name, eh? [This message has been edited by matt (edited June 12, 2001).]

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